220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 Practice Test Free 100+ Questions

220-1202 Core 2 V15 Exam

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CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1202 Core 2)

CompTIA A+ core 2 practice test free questions cover the current objectives of the 220-1202 (V15) exam.

Operating systems (28%)
Security (28%)
Software troubleshooting (23%)
Operational procedures (21%)

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Question|A technician is installing Windows 11 on a system that already has encrypted user data on a secondary drive. During setup, the installer warns that it cannot install to the selected disk due to partition style mismatch. The user insists the existing data must remain accessible after installation. What is the most appropriate action?|a. Convert the disk from MBR to GPT using Disk Management before installation|b. Delete all existing partitions and allow Windows Setup to recreate them|c. Load third-party storage drivers during Windows Setup|d. Install Windows in Legacy BIOS mode instead of UEFI|a|Windows 11 requires UEFI firmware and a GPT partition style to install correctly on supported systems, and a partition style mismatch typically occurs when the disk is formatted as MBR while the system is running in UEFI mode. Converting the disk from MBR to GPT resolves the incompatibility without requiring a full disk wipe when done correctly, which is critical because the user needs continued access to encrypted data on the secondary drive. Disk Management or supported conversion tools allow this change while preserving existing partitions, making it the safest and most exam-appropriate choice. This approach aligns with The exam expectations around OS installation requirements, data preservation, and correct disk configuration decisions.
Question|A user upgraded a Windows 10 system to Windows 11. After the upgrade, the system boots slowly, and CPU usage remains high even when idle. The user reports no error messages. Which tool should the technician use first to identify the root cause?|a. Event Viewer|b. Disk Management|c. Task Manager|d. Windows Recovery Environment|c|Task Manager provides real-time visibility into CPU usage, running processes, background services, and startup applications, making it the fastest way to identify abnormal resource consumption after an operating system upgrade. High CPU usage at idle usually indicates a misbehaving application, service, or startup process that may have re-enabled itself during the upgrade. Task Manager allows the technician to immediately pinpoint the exact process responsible without making system changes. This matches exam expectations that emphasize live system analysis and choosing the least invasive, most efficient diagnostic tool first.
Question|A technician is installing Linux alongside an existing Windows installation on a single SSD. The user wants both operating systems to be selectable at startup. Which installation decision is most critical to ensure this requirement is met?|a. Installing Linux using the same NTFS partition as Windows|b. Configuring a bootloader during the Linux installation|c. Formatting the Windows partition to ext4|d. Disabling Secure Boot permanently|b|A bootloader is responsible for presenting a menu that allows users to choose between operating systems at startup, which is essential for any dual-boot configuration. During Linux installation, properly configuring a bootloader such as GRUB ensures that both Linux and the existing Windows installation are detected and accessible. Without a bootloader, the system would default to a single operating system, making the other unreachable. This scenario reflects real-world OS installation planning and directly aligns with The exam objectives related to multi-boot environments and startup management.
Question|A Windows system fails to boot after a feature update. The technician suspects corrupted system files but wants to avoid a full reinstall. Which Command Prompt tool should be used first?|a. chkdsk|b. diskpart|c. sfc|d. format|c|System File Checker is designed to scan protected Windows system files and automatically repair corrupted or missing files using cached copies, making it the most appropriate first step after a failed update. Feature updates can interrupt file replacement processes, leading to system instability or boot issues. Running sfc from an elevated Command Prompt or recovery environment addresses the root cause without impacting user data or installed applications. The exam emphasizes selecting built-in repair tools that resolve issues efficiently while minimizing disruption.
Question|A technician is preparing a macOS installation on a new Mac with Apple silicon. The user wants the system optimized for security and future updates. Which file system should be selected during installation?|a. HFS+|b. exFAT|c. APFS|d. NTFS|c|APFS is the default and recommended file system for modern macOS installations, especially on Apple silicon systems, because it is optimized for SSDs and supports advanced features such as encryption, snapshots, and rapid updates. Apple designs macOS updates and security mechanisms with APFS in mind, making it essential for long-term compatibility and performance. Selecting APFS ensures seamless integration with system integrity protection and future OS upgrades, which aligns with exam expectations for macOS installation decisions.
Question|A Windows user reports that a secondary drive is visible in BIOS but not accessible in File Explorer. The drive is new and unformatted. Which tool should the technician use to make the drive usable?|a. Task Manager|b. Disk Management|c. Command Prompt with sfc|d. Device Manager|b|Disk Management is the correct tool for initializing, partitioning, and formatting new storage devices that are recognized by firmware but not yet configured for use by the operating system. A drive that appears in BIOS but not in File Explorer usually lacks a partition table or file system. Disk Management allows the technician to initialize the disk, create partitions, assign a drive letter, and format it appropriately. This scenario directly reflects The exam expectations regarding storage configuration and troubleshooting unallocated disks.
Question|A company issues Android devices to employees. The security policy requires remote wiping if a device is lost. During setup, which OS-level feature must be enabled to meet this requirement?|a. Developer options|b. Device encryption only|c. Mobile device management enrollment|d. USB debugging|c|Remote wipe capabilities are provided through mobile device management solutions that integrate with the operating system to allow centralized control. Enrolling the device in an MDM platform enables administrators to enforce security policies, track devices, and remotely erase data if a device is lost or stolen. Encryption alone does not provide remote control, and developer or debugging features are unrelated to enterprise security management. This scenario aligns with exam objectives focused on mobile OS deployment and security enforcement.
Question|After upgrading Windows, a technician notices that a legacy application no longer launches. The application worked previously and is required for business operations. What is the best immediate action?|a. Perform a clean OS installation|b. Use compatibility settings on the application|c. Convert the system from GPT to MBR|d. Disable Windows Update|b|Compatibility settings allow legacy applications to run using settings that emulate behavior from earlier Windows versions, which is often sufficient after an OS upgrade. This approach is fast, non-destructive, and does not require reinstalling the operating system or altering disk configurations. Many legacy applications fail after upgrades due to version detection or deprecated features. The exam emphasizes using built-in troubleshooting features before resorting to drastic solutions, making compatibility mode the correct first step.
Question|A technician needs to stop an unresponsive background service that is preventing a Windows shutdown. The system is still usable. Which approach is most efficient?|a. Force power off the system|b. Use Task Manager to end the process|c. Boot into Safe Mode|d. Run chkdsk|b|Task Manager allows immediate control over running processes and services, enabling the technician to terminate the specific unresponsive service that is blocking shutdown. This method avoids the risk of file corruption associated with forcing the system off and does not require rebooting into Safe Mode. The exam prioritizes safe, efficient, and minimal-impact troubleshooting techniques, and Task Manager is the appropriate tool for managing active system processes in real time.
Question|A user wants to upgrade from Windows Home to Windows Pro to enable BitLocker. The system meets all hardware requirements. What is required to complete this upgrade?|a. A clean installation from external media|b. Conversion of the file system to exFAT|c. A valid Windows Pro license key|d. Disabling Secure Boot|c|Upgrading from Windows Home to Windows Pro requires a valid Pro edition license key, which unlocks additional features such as BitLocker without requiring a clean installation. The upgrade process preserves user data, applications, and system settings. File system changes and firmware configuration adjustments are unnecessary. The exam expects candidates to understand Windows edition upgrades and licensing requirements as part of OS management.
Question|A Linux system fails to boot after a kernel update. The user needs immediate access to files. What is the most appropriate action?|a. Reinstall the operating system|b. Boot using a live Linux environment|c. Format the root partition|d. Disable UEFI|b|Booting from a live Linux environment allows access to the system’s file systems without relying on the installed OS, which is critical when kernel updates cause boot failures. This method enables data recovery and troubleshooting while preserving existing data. Reinstalling or formatting would risk data loss and is not appropriate when immediate file access is required. The exam emphasizes data preservation and effective recovery techniques in OS failure scenarios.
Question|A technician is using Command Prompt to prepare a disk for Windows installation. The disk contains old partitions that must be completely removed. Which command is most appropriate?|a. clean|b. format|c. assign|d. list volume|a|The clean command in diskpart removes all partition and volume information from a disk, returning it to an unallocated state suitable for a fresh OS installation. This ensures no residual partition data interferes with setup. Format only applies to existing partitions, and assign and list volume do not remove disk structures. The exam frequently tests disk preparation commands used before operating system installations.
Question|A Windows system shows frequent disk usage spikes after an OS upgrade. The user reports slow file access. Which file system-related factor is most likely involved?|a. Incorrect time zone configuration|b. File system corruption requiring repair|c. Disabled network adapter|d. Outdated display drivers|b|File system corruption can occur during OS upgrades if disk operations are interrupted, leading to performance issues such as high disk usage and slow file access. Repairing the file system restores consistency and normal disk behavior. Time zone settings, network adapters, and display drivers do not directly affect disk performance. The exam expects candidates to associate post-upgrade performance problems with underlying storage integrity issues.
Question|A technician is installing Windows on a system used for large video files. The user wants support for files larger than 4 GB and strong permissions. Which file system should be selected?|a. FAT32|b. exFAT|c. NTFS|d. ext4|c|NTFS supports very large files, advanced permissions, encryption, and compression, making it ideal for professional Windows environments handling large video files. FAT32 has strict file size limitations, and exFAT lacks advanced security features. ext4 is not native to Windows installations. The exam emphasizes selecting file systems based on workload and security requirements, making NTFS the correct choice.
Question|A Windows laptop fails to install updates and reports insufficient disk space. The user has many temporary files. What is the best built-in solution?|a. Disk Cleanup|b. Task Manager|c. Device Manager|d. System Restore|a|Disk Cleanup removes temporary files, cached update files, and unnecessary system data, freeing space required for Windows updates to complete successfully. It is a safe, built-in maintenance utility designed specifically for this purpose. Task Manager and Device Manager do not manage disk storage, and System Restore does not free space. The exam highlights Disk Cleanup as a primary solution for update-related storage issues.
Question|A technician notices that a Windows system has multiple startup programs causing slow boot times. Which Task Manager tab is most relevant?|a. Processes|b. Performance|c. Startup|d. Users|c|The Startup tab in Task Manager lists applications configured to run during system boot and shows their impact on startup time. Disabling unnecessary startup programs directly improves boot performance. Other tabs provide system monitoring or user information but do not control startup behavior. The exam tests practical Task Manager usage, and startup optimization is a common real-world troubleshooting task.
Question|A user wants to dual-boot Windows and Linux on separate drives. The system uses UEFI. What must be ensured during installation?|a. Both OSes use the same file system|b. Secure Boot is configured appropriately|c. The Windows drive is formatted|d. Legacy BIOS mode is enabled|b|UEFI systems with Secure Boot may block unsigned bootloaders, which can prevent Linux from booting if not configured correctly. Ensuring Secure Boot settings are compatible with the Linux distribution allows both operating systems to function. File systems do not need to match, and switching to Legacy BIOS is unnecessary. The exam expects awareness of firmware-level interactions in multi-OS installations.
Question|A Windows technician needs to verify network configuration quickly using Command Prompt. Which command is most appropriate?|a. ipconfig|b. sfc|c. format|d. diskpart|a|The ipconfig command displays current IP address information, subnet masks, and default gateways, making it essential for quick network configuration verification. It is commonly used during initial network troubleshooting. The other commands relate to disk or system file management and do not provide networking information. The exam tests recognition of core command-line utilities and their appropriate use cases.
Question|After a macOS upgrade, a user reports reduced available storage due to system snapshots. What feature is responsible?|a. Time Machine local snapshots|b. Disk Utility First Aid|c. FileVault encryption|d. Spotlight indexing|a|Time Machine automatically creates local snapshots before major system changes such as OS upgrades, allowing rollback if problems occur. These snapshots temporarily consume disk space, which can reduce available storage after an upgrade. Disk Utility, FileVault, and Spotlight do not create snapshots. The exam includes macOS update behaviors and expects understanding of storage changes following upgrades.
Question|A technician is deploying Windows updates across multiple systems. One system consistently fails and rolls back changes. What is the most appropriate next step?|a. Disable updates permanently|b. Review update logs for specific errors|c. Reformat the system drive|d. Replace the hard drive|b|Windows update logs provide detailed information about why updates fail, including missing prerequisites, driver conflicts, or corrupted files. Reviewing these logs allows targeted troubleshooting rather than unnecessary system reinstallation or hardware replacement. Disabling updates creates security risks. The exam stresses logical troubleshooting progression and the importance of using diagnostic logs to resolve update issues.
Question|A user installs Windows on a tablet device. The system supports touch input and ARM architecture. What installation consideration is most critical?|a. Selecting a 32-bit installer|b. Ensuring ARM-compatible Windows version|c. Disabling BitLocker|d. Formatting with FAT32|b|ARM-based devices require a Windows version specifically compiled for ARM architecture, as x86 installers are incompatible. Ensuring architecture compatibility is critical for successful installation and proper hardware support, including touch input. File system choices and BitLocker settings are secondary considerations. The exam includes scenarios involving mobile and specialized hardware, making architecture awareness essential during OS installation.
Question|A technician is securing a small business wireless network after multiple unauthorized connection attempts were detected. Employees use company-owned laptops, and management wants strong encryption without requiring manual certificate management. Which wireless security configuration best meets this requirement?|a. WPA2 with TKIP and a shared passphrase|b. WPA3-Personal using SAE|c. Open network with MAC filtering|d. WPA2-Enterprise using EAP-TLS|b|WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, which provides strong encryption and protects against offline password attacks without requiring certificates or a RADIUS server. This makes it ideal for small business environments that need improved security over WPA2 but want to avoid complex infrastructure. SAE ensures that even if the passphrase is weak, attackers cannot easily capture and crack authentication data. From an exam perspective, WPA3-Personal is the correct choice when strong wireless encryption is required and administrative overhead must remain low. It aligns with The exam expectations around modern wireless security standards, practical deployment decisions, and balancing security with ease of management in real-world business environments.
Question|A user reports that their Windows system suddenly displays ransom messages and files have unfamiliar extensions. The system is still powered on, and the network cable is connected. What is the technician’s FIRST action?|a. Run a full antivirus scan|b. Power off the system immediately|c. Disconnect the system from the network|d. Restore files from backup|c|Disconnecting the system from the network immediately limits the spread of ransomware to shared drives, mapped network resources, and other connected systems. Ransomware commonly attempts lateral movement and command-and-control communication once active. Isolating the system helps contain the incident and prevents further damage while preserving the system state for analysis. From an exam standpoint, containment is always the first step when active malware is detected. The exam emphasizes incident response order, prioritizing isolation before removal or recovery. This scenario reflects real-world decision-making where preventing additional impact is more critical than immediate remediation actions.
Question|A company requires that lost laptops do not expose sensitive customer data even if the hard drive is removed and installed in another system. Which security measure best addresses this requirement?|a. Strong BIOS passwords|b. File-level permissions|c. Full-disk encryption|d. Screen lock timeout policies|c|Full-disk encryption ensures that all data on the storage device is unreadable without proper authentication, even if the drive is physically removed and accessed externally. This protects data at rest against theft, loss, and offline attacks. It is independent of the operating system once encryption is applied and enforced at the disk level. The exam focuses heavily on encryption as a core security control for mobile and portable devices. This scenario directly tests understanding of data protection requirements and selecting controls that remain effective even when physical security is compromised.
Question|A technician discovers a workstation running slowly with unknown processes consuming CPU and network bandwidth. Antivirus definitions are outdated. What is the most effective next step?|a. Update antivirus definitions and run a scan|b. Disable the network adapter permanently|c. Reimage the system immediately|d. Delete suspicious files manually|a|Updating antivirus definitions ensures the security software can detect the latest malware variants before scanning the system. Malware frequently evolves, and outdated definitions reduce detection accuracy. Running a scan after updating provides a controlled and systematic approach to identifying and removing threats without damaging the system. From an exam perspective, The exam stresses proper malware remediation procedures. Updating definitions before scanning is a critical step that demonstrates understanding of how signature-based detection works. Immediate reimaging or manual deletion skips essential diagnostic steps and is not the preferred first action in controlled environments.
Question|An administrator wants to prevent users from installing unauthorized software on Windows systems without impacting daily productivity. Which control is most appropriate?|a. Mandatory password changes every 30 days|b. Least privilege user accounts|c. Full-disk encryption|d. Network firewall rules|b|Least privilege ensures users operate with standard user rights rather than administrative privileges, preventing unauthorized software installations while allowing normal job functions. This control reduces the attack surface by limiting what malware or users can execute without approval. It is one of the most effective preventive security measures. For the exam, least privilege is a foundational access control concept. The exam expects candidates to recognize scenarios where restricting permissions directly mitigates risk without harming usability. This question tests the ability to apply access control principles to real operational requirements.
Question|A user receives an email appearing to be from IT support requesting login credentials to “verify account security.” The email contains a link to a realistic login page. What type of attack is this?|a. Brute force attack|b. Pharming attack|c. Spear phishing attack|d. Shoulder surfing attack|c|Spear phishing targets specific users and uses convincing messages to trick them into revealing sensitive information. The realistic login page and impersonation of IT support indicate a targeted social engineering attempt rather than a generic attack. These attacks rely on trust and urgency rather than technical exploits. The exam includes social engineering as a major malware and security topic. This scenario tests the ability to identify attack patterns based on behavior and context, which is critical for both prevention and user education responsibilities in real-world IT roles.
Question|A technician is configuring a new router for a home office. The user wants protection against unauthorized wireless access while supporting older devices. Which configuration is the best compromise?|a. WPA3-Enterprise|b. WPA2-Personal with AES|c. WEP with long passphrase|d. Open network with VPN requirement|b|WPA2-Personal with AES provides strong encryption while maintaining compatibility with older devices that may not support WPA3. AES is significantly more secure than deprecated options and is widely supported. This configuration balances security and device compatibility effectively. From an exam perspective, understanding when WPA2 is still acceptable is important. The exam expects candidates to choose realistic configurations based on environment constraints rather than defaulting to the newest standard when compatibility issues exist.
Question|A company laptop is stolen from an employee’s car. Management is concerned about unauthorized access to corporate resources. Which control limits damage even if credentials are compromised?|a. Multi-factor authentication|b. Antivirus software|c. BIOS updates|d. Screen brightness timeout|a|Multi-factor authentication requires an additional verification factor beyond a password, such as a token or biometric, making stolen credentials far less useful. Even if an attacker gains the username and password, they cannot access corporate systems without the second factor. The exam emphasizes layered security controls. MFA is a key example of defense in depth and is frequently tested in scenarios involving stolen devices or compromised credentials. This question evaluates understanding of access control resilience under breach conditions.
Question|A technician is removing malware from a system and wants to ensure it does not reinfect after reboot. What step is MOST important?|a. Delete temporary files|b. Disable System Restore during removal|c. Change the desktop wallpaper|d. Clear browser bookmarks|b|Disabling System Restore prevents malware from hiding in restore points and reinfecting the system when restoration occurs. Many malware variants embed themselves into restore snapshots, making removal ineffective if restore remains active during cleanup. For the exam, The exam stresses proper malware removal procedures, including handling recovery features correctly. This scenario tests awareness of persistence mechanisms and the importance of controlling system features that malware can exploit.
Question|A user complains that their browser homepage keeps changing and frequent pop-up ads appear, but antivirus scans find nothing. What type of threat is MOST likely present?|a. Rootkit|b. Logic bomb|c. Adware|d. Worm|c|Adware commonly modifies browser settings, injects advertisements, and redirects homepages without necessarily triggering traditional antivirus alerts. It often installs alongside legitimate software and focuses on revenue generation rather than system destruction. The exam includes non-traditional malware types such as adware and potentially unwanted programs. This question tests the ability to diagnose threats based on symptoms rather than relying solely on antivirus detection results.
Question|A technician must secure shared folders so only the accounting group can access payroll files. What is the BEST control to implement?|a. File-level permissions|b. Full-disk encryption|c. Network firewall rules|d. BIOS passwords|a|File-level permissions allow precise control over who can read, write, or modify specific files and folders. Assigning access based on group membership ensures that only authorized users can access sensitive payroll data while others are restricted. For the exam, The exam expects clear understanding of access controls at different levels. This scenario specifically tests knowledge of logical access controls and their appropriate application for protecting sensitive data within shared environments.
Question|A system repeatedly reconnects to unknown external IP addresses after malware removal. What should the technician do NEXT?|a. Reboot the system|b. Review startup and scheduled tasks|c. Replace the network cable|d. Disable the firewall|b|Reviewing startup items and scheduled tasks helps identify persistence mechanisms that malware uses to reestablish connections after apparent removal. Advanced malware often creates hidden tasks or startup entries to maintain control. The exam emphasizes persistence detection as part of malware prevention. This scenario tests deeper troubleshooting skills beyond basic scanning, focusing on ensuring threats are fully eradicated rather than temporarily suppressed.
Question|An organization wants to prevent unauthorized USB devices from being used on workstations. Which solution is most effective?|a. Antivirus real-time scanning|b. Physical cable locks|c. Device control via group policy|d. Screen lock timers|c|Device control through group policy allows administrators to block or restrict USB storage devices while permitting approved peripherals. This prevents data exfiltration and malware introduction through removable media. For the exam, The exam expects understanding of administrative controls and endpoint protection techniques. This question assesses the ability to apply centralized policy-based security controls in a corporate environment.
Question|A technician wants to ensure wireless traffic cannot be captured and decrypted later if the network password is compromised. Which feature provides this protection?|a. Pre-shared keys|b. MAC filtering|c. Forward secrecy|d. SSID hiding|c|Forward secrecy ensures that even if encryption keys are compromised in the future, previously captured traffic cannot be decrypted. This is a key security improvement in modern wireless protocols like WPA3. The exam includes modern encryption concepts and their benefits. This question evaluates understanding of advanced wireless security features and why they matter in real-world threat scenarios involving traffic capture.
Question|A user unknowingly installs a free utility that secretly records keystrokes. What type of malware is this?|a. Trojan|b. Spyware|c. Worm|d. Boot sector virus|b|Spyware is designed to secretly monitor user activity, including keystrokes, without the user’s knowledge. It often disguises itself as legitimate software to gain installation approval. For the exam, The exam tests recognition of malware behavior patterns. This scenario requires identifying malware based on function rather than installation method, reinforcing behavioral analysis skills.
Question|A technician is hardening a Windows system against unauthorized login attempts. Which setting directly reduces brute-force risk?|a. Account lockout policy|b. NTFS permissions|c. Disk encryption|d. Antivirus scheduling|a|An account lockout policy limits the number of failed login attempts before temporarily locking an account. This directly prevents brute-force password guessing by reducing allowable attempts. The exam places strong emphasis on access control configurations. This question tests understanding of authentication protections and selecting controls that directly mitigate specific attack types.
Question|A company wants to ensure employees connect securely to public Wi-Fi while traveling. Which solution is MOST appropriate?|a. Disable wireless adapters|b. Use a VPN connection|c. Use WEP encryption|d. Enable SSID broadcasting|b|A VPN encrypts all traffic between the user and the corporate network, protecting data from interception on unsecured public Wi-Fi. This ensures confidentiality even when the underlying network is untrusted. For the exam, The exam highlights VPN usage as a core security practice for remote access. This scenario tests the ability to select protective measures appropriate for mobile and remote users.
Question|A technician finds malware that hides itself by modifying core system files and evades standard detection. What type of malware is MOST likely involved?|a. Adware|b. Rootkit|c. Logic bomb|d. Ransomware|b|Rootkits are designed to conceal their presence by modifying core operating system components, allowing them to evade detection and maintain privileged access. They are among the most difficult malware types to detect and remove. The exam includes rootkits as advanced threats. This question tests recognition of stealth-based malware behavior and understanding of why such threats require specialized detection and remediation approaches.
Question|A user reports frequent fake antivirus alerts urging payment to “clean” the system. What is the BEST classification for this threat?|a. Worm|b. Ransomware|c. Rogue antivirus|d. Boot virus|c|Rogue antivirus software masquerades as legitimate security tools and uses scare tactics to trick users into paying for fake threat removal. It relies heavily on social engineering rather than technical exploits. The exam expects candidates to identify malware based on user experience and behavioral cues. This scenario reinforces recognition of fraudulent security software, which is common in real-world support cases.
Question|A technician wants to prevent malware from executing even if it reaches a system. Which control is MOST effective?|a. Application allowlisting|b. Antivirus signature updates|c. User security training|d. Screen lock policies|a|Application allowlisting permits only approved software to execute, blocking unknown or unauthorized programs regardless of how they arrive on the system. This significantly reduces malware execution risk. The exam emphasizes preventive controls over reactive measures. This question tests understanding of execution prevention strategies and selecting controls that stop threats before damage occurs.
Question|A company wants to ensure wireless clients automatically use the strongest encryption available. Which configuration supports this goal?|a. Mixed-mode WPA2/WPA3|b. WEP only|c. Open authentication|d. Static IP assignment|a|Mixed-mode WPA2/WPA3 allows newer devices to use WPA3 while older devices fall back to WPA2, ensuring the strongest encryption is used whenever possible without breaking compatibility. This provides gradual security improvement across the environment. For the exam, The exam expects candidates to understand transitional security configurations. This scenario tests balancing security advancement with real-world device compatibility constraints.
Question|A Windows 11 workstation boots successfully but displays a black screen with only a movable cursor after login. The system worked normally before a recent graphics driver update. What is the MOST appropriate first troubleshooting step?|a. Perform a clean Windows installation|b. Boot into Safe Mode and roll back the display driver|c. Replace the graphics card|d. Disable User Account Control|b|Booting into Safe Mode loads Windows with minimal drivers, including a basic display driver, which allows access to the system even when a faulty graphics driver causes display issues. This directly addresses the symptom that appeared immediately after a driver update and avoids unnecessary data loss or hardware replacement. Rolling back the driver restores the last known working configuration and is a standard, exam-relevant troubleshooting step for post-update OS issues. This approach follows The exam troubleshooting methodology by starting with the least invasive solution that targets the most likely cause. It demonstrates understanding of driver-related OS failures and proper use of Safe Mode for isolating software problems rather than escalating prematurely.
Question|A user reports that Microsoft Word crashes every time it is opened, while other Office applications work normally. The issue began after a recent Office update. What is the BEST next step?|a. Reinstall the entire operating system|b. Run an Office application repair|c. Delete the user profile|d. Disable antivirus software permanently|b|Running an Office application repair targets corrupted or incomplete application files without affecting user data or the operating system. Since only one application is affected and the issue started after an update, repairing the application is the most precise and efficient solution. This resolves many update-related issues while minimizing downtime. The exam emphasizes isolating problems to the affected component and choosing corrective actions that are proportional to the scope of the issue. Application repair fits this requirement and reflects real-world troubleshooting practices for software instability.
Question|A Windows system becomes extremely slow after startup, but performance improves significantly after 15 minutes. Task Manager shows high disk usage during this period. What is the MOST likely cause?|a. Failing CPU|b. Insufficient RAM|c. Background startup processes and services|d. Incorrect BIOS settings|c|High disk usage immediately after startup is commonly caused by background startup applications, indexing services, or update-related tasks initializing during boot. These processes often stabilize after completing their initial operations, which explains the performance improvement over time. Task Manager is commonly used to identify this behavior. From an exam perspective, recognizing startup-related performance issues is critical. The exam expects candidates to correlate symptoms with common OS behaviors and understand how startup processes impact system performance without assuming hardware failure prematurely.
Question|A Windows laptop fails to install cumulative updates and repeatedly reverts changes after reboot. Available disk space is critically low. What should the technician do FIRST?|a. Run System Restore|b. Free disk space using Disk Cleanup|c. Reset Windows Update components|d. Reimage the system|b|Windows updates require sufficient free disk space to download, unpack, and apply changes. When space is critically low, updates will fail regardless of other troubleshooting steps. Disk Cleanup removes temporary files, old update data, and unnecessary system files, directly addressing the root cause. The exam stresses identifying and resolving prerequisite issues before deeper troubleshooting. Freeing disk space is a foundational step that enables updates to proceed and avoids unnecessary resets or system reimaging.
Question|A user installs a new application that now prevents Windows from booting normally. The system enters a restart loop. What is the BEST way to regain access and remove the application?|a. Boot from installation media and format the drive|b. Boot into Safe Mode and uninstall the application|c. Replace the system drive|d. Disable Secure Boot|b|Safe Mode loads Windows with minimal drivers and services, bypassing most third-party applications. This allows access to the system even when a newly installed application disrupts normal startup. Uninstalling the problematic application in Safe Mode directly resolves the issue. This aligns with The exam troubleshooting principles by isolating third-party software as a common cause of boot issues. It also demonstrates proper escalation control by resolving the problem without data loss or hardware changes.
Question|A smartphone connects to Wi-Fi but cannot access any websites, while other devices on the same network work normally. Cellular data works correctly. What is the MOST likely cause?|a. Faulty Wi-Fi router|b. Incorrect DNS settings on the phone|c. Disabled wireless adapter on the phone|d. Corrupted operating system|b|When a device connects to Wi-Fi but cannot resolve or access websites while others can, DNS misconfiguration is a common cause. Cellular data working confirms the browser and apps are functional, narrowing the issue to Wi-Fi-specific settings on the device. The exam mobile troubleshooting expects candidates to isolate connectivity issues by comparing network behaviors. DNS issues are a frequent real-world cause of partial connectivity failures and should be addressed before considering OS corruption.
Question|A mobile device battery drains rapidly even when not actively used. Battery usage shows a single app consuming excessive background resources. What is the BEST action?|a. Replace the battery|b. Force stop or uninstall the application|c. Perform a factory reset immediately|d. Disable Wi-Fi permanently|b|An application consuming excessive background resources is a common cause of rapid battery drain. Force stopping or uninstalling the app directly resolves the issue without affecting user data or device configuration. Battery replacement is unnecessary when software behavior is the cause. The exam emphasizes identifying misbehaving applications during mobile troubleshooting. This scenario tests the ability to interpret battery usage data and take targeted corrective action rather than resorting to extreme measures.
Question|A user reports frequent pop-up ads and browser redirects on a Windows system. Antivirus scans show no infections. What is the MOST appropriate next step?|a. Reinstall Windows|b. Scan for potentially unwanted programs using antimalware tools|c. Disable the network adapter|d. Replace the hard drive|b|Pop-up ads and browser redirects are common symptoms of adware or potentially unwanted programs that may not be flagged by traditional antivirus tools. Specialized antimalware scans are designed to detect and remove these threats effectively. The exam expects candidates to recognize limitations of standard antivirus software and apply appropriate tools. This scenario tests understanding of layered security troubleshooting and proper malware identification based on user experience.
Question|A Windows user reports unauthorized logins to their account after clicking a suspicious email link. What is the MOST important immediate corrective action?|a. Change the account password|b. Disable the firewall|c. Clear browser cache|d. Install printer drivers|a|Changing the account password immediately prevents further unauthorized access when credentials may be compromised. This directly addresses the security breach and limits additional damage while further investigation occurs. The exam security troubleshooting prioritizes access control recovery after suspected credential compromise. This scenario tests incident response fundamentals and understanding of immediate corrective actions following phishing-related incidents.
Question|A system shows repeated antivirus alerts for the same malware after every reboot. What step is MOST important to prevent reinfection?|a. Delete temporary files|b. Disable System Restore during removal|c. Change the desktop theme|d. Update BIOS firmware|b|Malware can persist in System Restore points and reinfect the system when restoration occurs. Disabling System Restore during removal ensures that malware cannot return from saved snapshots and allows for complete cleanup. The exam emphasizes correct malware removal procedures, including handling OS recovery features. This scenario tests awareness of persistence mechanisms and proper sequencing during remediation.
Question|A Windows application launches but immediately closes without error messages. Event Viewer logs show application faults after a recent update. What is the BEST corrective action?|a. Run the application in compatibility mode|b. Replace system RAM|c. Disable Windows Firewall|d. Clear browser cookies|a|Compatibility mode allows applications to run using settings from previous Windows versions, which often resolves issues caused by OS updates. Event Viewer confirming application faults supports a software compatibility issue rather than hardware failure. The exam expects candidates to use built-in diagnostic tools and apply compatibility solutions before replacing hardware. This scenario reinforces proper interpretation of logs and targeted software troubleshooting.
Question|A mobile device frequently drops Bluetooth connections with multiple accessories. Wi-Fi and cellular connections are stable. What is the MOST likely cause?|a. Corrupted Bluetooth cache or settings|b. Faulty cellular modem|c. Outdated display drivers|d. Insufficient storage space|a|Bluetooth-specific connectivity issues across multiple devices usually indicate corrupted Bluetooth settings or cache rather than hardware failure. Clearing or resetting Bluetooth settings often restores stable connections. The exam mobile troubleshooting focuses on isolating the affected communication technology. This scenario tests the ability to narrow issues to specific subsystems instead of assuming broader device failure.
Question|A Windows system becomes unstable after installing multiple applications from unknown sources. What is the BEST long-term preventive solution?|a. Disable Windows Update|b. Use least privilege user accounts|c. Increase virtual memory|d. Replace the power supply|b|Using least privilege accounts prevents users from installing unauthorized or potentially harmful software, significantly reducing the risk of instability and malware infection. This addresses the root cause rather than repeatedly fixing symptoms. The exam emphasizes preventive security and system stability through access control. This scenario tests understanding of long-term software troubleshooting strategies rather than reactive fixes.
Question|A user cannot install apps from the official mobile app store, receiving repeated authentication errors. Internet connectivity is confirmed working. What should be checked FIRST?|a. Date and time settings on the device|b. Battery health|c. Screen resolution|d. Storage encryption status|a|Incorrect date and time settings can break authentication and certificate validation, preventing access to app stores even when connectivity is functional. This is a common and easily overlooked mobile issue. The exam expects candidates to recognize environmental and configuration dependencies in mobile troubleshooting. This scenario tests attention to subtle but critical settings that affect secure communications.
Question|A Windows PC shows constant high CPU usage caused by an unknown process. Malware scans are inconclusive. What is the MOST appropriate next step?|a. Review running processes and startup entries|b. Replace the CPU|c. Disable Windows Defender|d. Reset BIOS settings|a|Reviewing running processes and startup entries helps identify suspicious or misbehaving software that may not be immediately flagged as malware. This allows targeted remediation and prevents unnecessary hardware replacement.
Question|A mobile device overheats and slows down significantly when specific apps are opened. What is the MOST likely cause?|a. OS corruption|b. App memory leak or poor optimization|c. Weak cellular signal|d. Disabled location services|b|Poorly optimized applications or memory leaks can cause excessive CPU usage, leading to overheating and performance throttling. The issue being app-specific strongly supports this cause.
Question|A Windows user reports that they are locked out after multiple failed login attempts, even though they are using the correct password. What is the MOST likely explanation?|a. Keyboard hardware failure|b. Account lockout policy enforcement|c. Corrupted user profile|d. Expired antivirus license|b|Account lockout policies temporarily disable access after a defined number of failed login attempts to prevent brute-force attacks. This security measure remains active even if the correct password is later entered.
Question|A Windows application runs correctly when launched as administrator but fails for standard users. What is the MOST likely cause?|a. Insufficient file or registry permissions|b. Corrupt system files|c. Malware infection|d. Outdated graphics drivers|a|Applications that require elevated privileges often fail for standard users due to restricted file system or registry access. Running as administrator bypasses these limitations, confirming a permissions issue.
Question|A technician removes malware but notices the browser homepage resets after every reboot. What should be checked NEXT?|a. Browser extensions and add-ons|b. Monitor refresh rate|c. System RAM modules|d. Printer spooler service|a|Malicious or unwanted browser extensions commonly persist after malware removal and can reset settings such as homepages. Reviewing and removing these extensions prevents recurring symptoms.
Question|A mobile device experiences severe lag after an OS update, but storage is nearly full. What is the BEST corrective action?|a. Factory reset the device immediately|b. Free storage space and reboot|c. Replace the device|d. Disable security updates|b|Low storage negatively impacts mobile OS performance, especially after updates that require additional space for optimization. Freeing storage allows the OS to function normally and complete background processes.
Question|A Windows system shows signs of unauthorized remote access. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?|a. Disconnect the system from the network|b. Update video drivers|c. Clear temporary files|d. Disable screen saver|a|Disconnecting the system from the network immediately stops ongoing unauthorized access and prevents further data exfiltration or system manipulation. This containment step is critical before investigation or remediation.
Question|A technician is performing a system upgrade on a corporate workstation. They need to document hardware and software changes to maintain compliance with company policy. Which practice best aligns with proper documentation procedures?|A. Update the user manual after completing the upgrade|B. Record the change in a centralized change management system immediately|C. Notify only the workstation owner verbally after installation|D. Keep notes on a personal notepad for future reference|B|Recording the change in a centralized system ensures all modifications are logged and traceable. This practice supports accountability, auditing, and troubleshooting in the future. It also reduces risk of miscommunication among IT staff and aligns with industry best practices for documentation. Proper documentation helps maintain compliance with corporate policies and ensures consistent operational procedures. It allows multiple technicians to understand past changes without relying on memory or informal communication.
Question|During a routine maintenance session, a technician notices multiple sticky notes with passwords attached to workstations. What is the most appropriate action according to safety and communication protocols?|A. Ignore the notes to avoid confrontation|B. Remove the notes and inform management and users about proper password handling|C. Copy the passwords for internal records|D. Ask users to create simpler passwords to reduce sticky note usage|B|Removing notes and notifying management addresses the security risk immediately. It reinforces proper communication and educates users about best practices for password management. Following this protocol prevents unauthorized access and aligns with corporate security standards. It demonstrates both safety awareness and effective communication with staff.
Question|A workstation’s hard drive failed, and the IT team needs to restore critical files. The backup was performed two weeks ago using an incremental method. Which action ensures minimal data loss?|A. Restore the full backup from two weeks ago only|B. Restore the full backup and then apply all incremental backups since|C. Create a new backup before attempting recovery|D. Copy files manually from another user’s workstation|B|Applying the full backup followed by incremental backups ensures all data up to the last incremental is restored. This minimizes data loss and preserves recent changes. Incremental backups only store changes since the last backup. Restoring them sequentially after the full backup guarantees completeness of recovery.
Question|While documenting a system change, a technician realizes they entered incorrect component serial numbers in the central system. What is the correct operational procedure to fix this?|A. Delete the entire entry and re-enter it later|B. Update the record immediately with correct serial numbers and note the correction|C. Leave the entry as is to avoid audit issues|D. Email users about the incorrect serial numbers without changing the record|B|Updating the record immediately ensures documentation accuracy and accountability. Noting the correction maintains a clear audit trail for compliance purposes. Accurate records prevent future troubleshooting issues and support operational integrity. It also communicates transparency in maintenance activities to stakeholders.
Question|A technician is tasked with replacing a failing power supply in a desktop computer. What is the first safety step they should take?|A. Test the new power supply before installation|B. Disconnect the computer from all power sources|C. Wear an anti-static wrist strap after powering the computer on|D. Remove the case cover while the system is plugged in|B|Disconnecting power eliminates the risk of electric shock and component damage. It is the primary step in following safety protocols before hardware replacement. This ensures the technician can work safely and reduces risk to both equipment and personnel. Proper grounding and power disconnection are fundamental parts of operational safety.
Question|During a workstation backup, the technician notices the backup software is reporting a failed backup due to insufficient storage space. What is the best course of action?|A. Ignore the error and attempt the backup again|B. Free up storage space or increase storage capacity, then rerun the backup|C. Delete previous backups without verification|D. Switch to a different backup software immediately|B|Freeing or increasing storage ensures the backup can complete successfully. This preserves data integrity and continuity of recovery plans. Ignoring the error risks data loss, and deleting backups without verification can cause permanent loss. Following proper backup procedures prevents future operational issues.
Question|A technician receives a ticket to replace a workstation’s motherboard. The technician documents the replacement in the system but forgets to notify the user. What is the potential operational risk?|A. There is no risk as documentation is complete|B. Users may encounter unexpected configuration issues or confusion about changes|C. The motherboard replacement will void the warranty|D. IT management will not notice the change|B|Failing to notify users can cause confusion and disrupt workflow. It may lead to incorrect assumptions about software or hardware changes. Effective communication is a key part of operational procedures. Combining documentation and user notification ensures smooth post-maintenance operation.
Question|A company requires nightly backups of all critical workstations. A technician notices that one backup server has not run for three days due to a network issue. What should the technician do first?|A. Restart the server without checking logs|B. Investigate the network issue and manually run the missed backups|C. Wait until the next scheduled backup|D. Delete failed backup logs to avoid confusion|B|Investigating and manually running missed backups ensures no critical data is lost. It addresses the root cause and prevents repeated backup failures. Regular verification of backups is essential to maintain recovery readiness. This approach combines problem-solving with adherence to backup procedures.
Question|During a workstation recovery, the technician notices that system restore points are missing. Which action best aligns with operational procedures?|A. Attempt a hardware replacement immediately|B. Inform management and use the most recent verified backup to recover data|C. Reinstall the operating system without notifying users|D. Skip recovery and advise users to manually restore files|B|Using verified backups ensures data recovery while maintaining compliance with recovery procedures. Informing management documents the issue and keeps stakeholders aware of the impact. System restore points are helpful but not a substitute for proper backups. Following structured recovery procedures protects both data and operational integrity.
Question|A technician is performing documentation after a software patch deployment. They notice inconsistent version numbers across multiple systems. What is the best practice to resolve this?|A. Ignore the inconsistency if systems are functioning|B. Update the documentation and coordinate with the team to standardize versions|C. Reinstall the software on all systems immediately|D. Ask users to report any issues without updating records|B|Updating documentation and coordinating standardization ensures accurate records. It prevents configuration drift and potential security vulnerabilities. Consistent system versions improve troubleshooting and compliance reporting. Documenting discrepancies also provides an audit trail for IT management.
Question|A technician is tasked with safely disposing of an old workstation hard drive containing sensitive data. What is the correct operational procedure?|A. Remove the hard drive and discard it in regular trash|B. Perform data wiping or physical destruction and document the disposal|C. Leave the drive for users to handle|D. Store the hard drive indefinitely without action|B|Data wiping or physical destruction ensures sensitive information is securely removed. Documenting the process provides accountability and compliance with data policies. This procedure prevents potential data breaches and maintains organizational security standards. It also demonstrates adherence to operational and safety protocols.
Question|A user reports that their workstation is not functioning after a system update. The technician suspects a corrupted backup caused by an interrupted backup process. Which step aligns with proper recovery procedures?|A. Restore the workstation using the last verified successful backup|B. Attempt another system update immediately|C. Replace the hard drive without checking backups|D. Ask the user to reinstall applications manually|A|Restoring from the last verified backup ensures system integrity and minimizes downtime. It prevents further corruption and follows established recovery protocols. Unverified backups may contain errors that worsen the situation. Following proper recovery procedures safeguards both data and user operations.
Question|During an equipment upgrade, a technician notices exposed wiring that poses a shock hazard. What is the proper safety procedure?|A. Continue work and document the hazard later|B. Stop work, secure the area, and notify safety personnel before proceeding|C. Cover the wires with tape and proceed|D. Ask the user to avoid the area while work continues|B|Stopping work and securing the area prevents accidents and ensures technician safety. Notifying safety personnel allows proper remediation before continuing work. Safety protocols protect staff and maintain compliance with occupational standards. Documentation of hazards after mitigation ensures operational records are accurate.
Question|A company wants to ensure that all workstation backups are consistent and recoverable. Which procedure best achieves this goal?|A. Perform random manual backups once a month|B. Schedule automated, monitored backups and verify them regularly|C. Allow users to back up their own data individually|D. Store backups on local drives without testing|B|Automated, monitored backups with verification guarantee reliability and data integrity. Regular verification detects issues before data loss occurs. This procedure aligns with best practices for operational continuity. Consistent and tested backups support rapid recovery in case of failures.
Question|A technician documents a system upgrade but fails to include the software license key used. What risk does this pose?|A. No risk if the software functions normally|B. Difficulty in future reinstallations and compliance auditing|C. The workstation will automatically reactivate|D. Users will be able to reinstall without issue|B|Missing license documentation can cause compliance issues and reinstall problems. It may prevent rapid recovery in case of system failure or migration. Recording all relevant information ensures audits and support tasks can be performed efficiently. Operational procedures require thorough documentation to prevent workflow disruptions.
Question|A technician is preparing a workstation for a critical update and notices the user has unsaved work. Which action follows proper communication procedures?|A. Proceed with the update immediately|B. Notify the user, allow them to save work, then perform the update|C. Save the work themselves without asking the user|D. Cancel the update to avoid disruption|B|Notifying the user ensures they can protect their data before changes occur. It demonstrates clear communication and adherence to operational protocols. Proper coordination prevents data loss and maintains user trust. Following this process supports both safety and efficiency in updates.
Question|A server backup failed overnight, but no alerts were received. What procedure should the technician implement to prevent future unnoticed failures?|A. Rely on manual checks weekly|B. Configure alert notifications and regularly verify backup logs|C. Schedule backups less frequently|D. Assume failures are rare and ignore them|B|Alert notifications and log verification ensure issues are detected immediately. This prevents silent failures that could lead to data loss. Regular monitoring maintains operational readiness and aligns with best practices. Proactive measures reduce risk and improve recovery reliability.
Question|A workstation’s recovery partition is missing after a failed update. What is the proper recovery protocol?|A. Reinstall the OS without verifying backups|B. Use the last verified backup to restore the system|C. Ignore the missing recovery partition|D. Attempt to rebuild the partition manually without documentation|B|Using a verified backup ensures system functionality and preserves user data. It aligns with proper recovery procedures and reduces downtime. Recovery partitions are helpful but secondary to reliable backups. Following structured procedures ensures consistent, auditable recovery outcomes.
Question|During a backup audit, a technician finds that some workstations have incomplete backups due to network interruptions. What is the recommended operational response?|A. Delete incomplete backups and wait for the next scheduled backup|B. Re-run the backup immediately after resolving the network issue and document the incident|C. Ignore incomplete backups if they are minor|D. Perform backups manually without documentation|B|Re-running the backup restores full data integrity and ensures operational continuity. Documenting the incident provides a clear record for future audits and troubleshooting. Resolving network issues before backup completion prevents recurring failures. This approach demonstrates adherence to operational procedures and best practices.
Question|A technician is deploying a new software package to multiple workstations. Some users report that the software is not functioning correctly. What operational procedure should the technician follow first?|A. Uninstall the software immediately on all systems|B. Check documentation for deployment steps and verify installation consistency|C. Advise users to troubleshoot individually|D. Ignore the reports if most systems work|B|Verifying documentation and deployment consistency identifies discrepancies that may cause failures. This approach ensures problems are addressed systematically. It prevents repeated errors and maintains accurate operational records. Following structured troubleshooting aligns with both efficiency and best practices.

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