100+ Free CompTIA Security Plus Practice Test Questions

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives

CompTIA Security Plus practice test questions cover the current objectives of the SY0-701 exam.

General security concepts (12%)
Threats, vulnerabilities, and mitigations (22%)
Security architecture (18%)
Security operations (28%)
Security program management and oversight (20%)

Here are your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test Questions!

Question|A company has recently suffered a ransomware attack. The security team wants to implement a control that minimizes future incidents by preventing unauthorized access and alerting the team of suspicious activity. They are considering technical solutions, employee training, and physical security measures.|a. Preventive and detective controls|b. Compensating and deterrent controls|c. Corrective and operational controls|d. Directive and managerial controls|a|Preventive controls are designed to stop security incidents before they occur, such as firewalls, access controls, and employee training. Detective controls identify and alert on suspicious activity, like intrusion detection systems (IDS). In this scenario, combining technical preventive measures (e.g., access restrictions, malware protection) with detective measures (monitoring, alerts) directly addresses the ransomware threat. Compensating controls are alternative measures for when primary controls fail, deterrent controls discourage actions, corrective controls fix damage, operational controls manage day-to-day operations, and directive/managerial controls focus on policy and guidance. Only preventive plus detective controls proactively reduce risk and provide visibility into attacks.
Question|A healthcare provider wants to ensure that patient records cannot be altered, accidentally or maliciously, while stored in their database. They also want to guarantee that any access to these records is logged.|a. Integrity and accounting|b. Confidentiality and authorization|c. Non-repudiation and deterrence|d. Availability and corrective control|a|Integrity ensures data cannot be modified without detection, maintaining trustworthiness. Accounting (part of AAA) logs user activity, creating an audit trail. In healthcare, both are critical to protect patient data and comply with regulations like HIPAA. Confidentiality prevents unauthorized access, authorization controls permissions, non-repudiation ensures actions can be traced, deterrence discourages malicious activity, and availability ensures access. Here, the combination of integrity and accounting directly secures the data against modification and provides traceability.
Question|A cloud service provider adopts a zero trust architecture. Users must verify identity for every request, regardless of network location, and micro-segmentation isolates workloads.|a. Authentication, authorization, and accounting|b. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability|c. Preventive and compensating controls|d. Change management and version control|a|Zero trust relies heavily on AAA: authentication verifies identity, authorization ensures users access only allowed resources, and accounting logs activity for audits. Micro-segmentation and continuous verification enforce strict access. CIA principles support security but do not enforce identity or access control directly. Preventive/compensating controls reduce risk but are not the primary zero trust mechanisms. Change management governs system updates, not runtime access. AAA is the operational backbone of zero trust strategies.
Question|An organization wants to track changes in their internal applications to ensure accountability and smooth recovery in case of errors. They implement automated version control with a documentation process for each update.|a. Change management|b. Preventive control|c. Compensating control|d. Deterrent control|a|Change management is a structured process for handling updates to systems or applications, ensuring business continuity, reducing errors, and documenting changes. Version control tracks code modifications and allows rollback, while documentation provides accountability. Preventive, compensating, and deterrent controls are security-specific measures that do not inherently provide structured process management. Effective change management combines technical, operational, and documentation strategies to minimize risk during updates.
Question|A company needs to secure messages between branches. They want to ensure that messages cannot be read if intercepted, and the recipient can verify that the message was not altered.|a. Encryption and hashing|b. Obfuscation and deterrence|c. Digital signatures and corrective control|d. Physical control and auditing|a|Encryption protects confidentiality, making messages unreadable to unauthorized parties. Hashing verifies integrity by generating a unique fingerprint of the message; any alteration changes the hash. Digital signatures can provide authentication and non-repudiation but are not sufficient alone for confidentiality. Obfuscation hides data but is less secure than encryption. Corrective, deterrent, and physical controls do not directly secure message content. This combination directly ensures confidentiality and integrity.
Question|During an internal audit, a financial institution wants to ensure employees cannot deny authorizing high-value transactions. They are considering using cryptographic techniques to achieve this.|a. Digital signatures|b. Encryption|c. Obfuscation|d. Hashing|a|Digital signatures provide non-repudiation by cryptographically linking the signer to the message, ensuring that they cannot deny the action. Encryption protects confidentiality, obfuscation hides data, and hashing ensures integrity but does not establish identity. For financial transactions, digital signatures are essential to legally and technically verify the source and authenticity of approvals.
Question|A company wants to implement a security system that discourages attacks by clearly communicating legal consequences and using visible security measures like cameras and alarms.|a. Deterrent control|b. Preventive control|c. Detective control|d. Corrective control|a|Deterrent controls aim to discourage malicious activity through visible measures and warnings, such as signage, alarms, or surveillance. Preventive controls block attacks, detective controls detect attacks, and corrective controls repair damage. Deterrence does not physically stop an attack but reduces likelihood by influencing attacker behavior. Cameras and legal warnings are classic deterrent controls because they raise the perceived risk of getting caught.
Question|A blockchain solution is proposed to manage supply chain transactions. The organization wants every transaction to be immutable, verifiable, and decentralized.|a. Blockchain|b. Hashing|c. Encryption|d. Obfuscation|a|Blockchain provides immutable, verifiable, and decentralized record-keeping. Hashing ensures integrity but does not provide a distributed ledger. Encryption secures data but doesn’t inherently guarantee immutability or decentralization. Obfuscation hides data but offers no verification or distributed validation. Blockchain combines cryptographic hashing and decentralized consensus to ensure all parties trust the transaction history without a central authority.
Question|An organization wants to secure user credentials so that even if the database is stolen, passwords cannot be easily retrieved, while still allowing verification during login.|a. Hashing|b. Encryption|c. Digital signature|d. Obfuscation|a|Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length, irreversible values. During login, the entered password is hashed and compared to the stored hash. Encryption could protect passwords but requires key management and allows decryption, which is riskier. Digital signatures provide authentication but not password protection. Obfuscation hides data but can be reversed. Hashing ensures secure storage and verification without revealing the original password.
Question|A multinational corporation detects unusual outbound traffic from a developer’s workstation containing encrypted files. Investigation reveals the developer was attempting to exfiltrate sensitive source code to a personal cloud account.|a. Insider threat motivated by financial or personal gain|b. Nation-state espionage|c. Hacktivist attack|d. Shadow IT misconfiguration|a|Insider threats involve employees or contractors misusing access to steal data or cause harm, often motivated by financial gain, revenge, or personal interests. In this scenario, the developer intentionally exfiltrates proprietary source code, fitting the insider threat profile. Nation-states focus on espionage or geopolitical objectives, hacktivists pursue ideological goals, and shadow IT refers to unauthorized IT systems rather than intentional data theft. Detecting insider activity requires monitoring access patterns, logging, and behavioral analytics to mitigate the risk effectively.
Question|An organization experiences a ransomware attack after an employee opened a malicious email attachment. The malware encrypted critical files across the network, causing operational disruption.|a. Message-based threat vector|b. File-based threat vector|c. Network-based threat vector|d. Voice call threat vector|b|File-based threat vectors exploit malicious files—such as email attachments, downloads, or USB devices—to infect systems. The ransomware attack in this case originated from a malicious attachment, classifying it as file-based. Message-based attacks may include phishing but do not necessarily deliver an executable file. Network-based attacks exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols, and voice call attacks (vishing) manipulate users verbally. File-based attacks often rely on social engineering to trick users into executing malicious code, highlighting the need for email filtering, endpoint protection, and user awareness training.
Question|A healthcare provider wants to prevent attackers from moving laterally between network segments if a workstation is compromised.|a. Network segmentation|b. Hardening|c. Access control|d. Patching|a|Network segmentation divides a network into isolated segments, limiting attacker movement and reducing the impact of a compromised system. Hardening strengthens individual systems against attacks, access control restricts resource access, and patching fixes vulnerabilities. In this scenario, segmentation prevents lateral movement, containing the threat and reducing exposure to sensitive data. Combining segmentation with monitoring, firewalls, and strict access policies creates a layered defense that mitigates internal and external attack risks effectively.
Question|A software vendor discovers a zero-day vulnerability in its web application framework that could allow remote code execution.|a. Application vulnerability|b. Operating system vulnerability|c. Hardware vulnerability|d. Mobile device vulnerability|a|Application vulnerabilities exist within software or web applications, including flaws in code, libraries, or frameworks. Zero-day exploits target these vulnerabilities before patches are available. OS vulnerabilities affect the operating system, hardware vulnerabilities target physical devices or firmware, and mobile vulnerabilities affect mobile operating systems or apps. Proper mitigation includes timely patching, input validation, and secure coding practices. Understanding the type of vulnerability is critical for implementing the correct containment and remediation strategy.
Question|An attacker uses a phishing email to trick employees into revealing their network credentials, which are later used to access sensitive systems.|a. Social engineering attack|b. File-based attack|c. Supply chain attack|d. Voice call attack|a|Social engineering attacks manipulate human behavior to bypass security measures, often through phishing, pretexting, or baiting. In this case, phishing exploits employees’ trust to obtain credentials. File-based attacks rely on malware-laden files, supply chain attacks compromise third-party systems, and voice call (vishing) attacks manipulate victims verbally. Mitigation includes user training, multifactor authentication, and email filtering to prevent credential theft and reduce the risk of unauthorized access.
Question|A company finds malware installed on an IoT sensor in its production environment, causing data corruption and device malfunction.|a. Hardware/malware attack|b. Mobile device attack|c. Cryptographic attack|d. Network attack|a|Hardware attacks target devices or embedded systems, which can include IoT sensors, firmware, or peripherals. Malware compromising these devices can disrupt functionality and corrupt data. Mobile device attacks target smartphones or tablets, cryptographic attacks focus on encryption weaknesses, and network attacks exploit network protocols. Protecting hardware includes applying firmware updates, restricting physical access, and monitoring for anomalous behavior. This scenario demonstrates the risk of attacks on operational technology (OT) devices within critical infrastructure.
Question|A supply chain attack occurs when a trusted software vendor is compromised, and malicious code is distributed in their official software updates.|a. Supply chain threat vector|b. File-based threat vector|c. Message-based threat vector|d. Unsecure network threat vector|a|Supply chain attacks exploit trusted third-party vendors to distribute malware or compromise systems. By targeting software vendors, attackers can infect multiple organizations without direct access. File-based attacks may also deliver malware but are not necessarily via trusted vendors. Message-based attacks focus on communication channels like email, and unsecure networks exploit transmission vulnerabilities. Mitigation involves vetting suppliers, code integrity verification, and monitoring update distribution channels to detect unauthorized modifications.
Question|An organization notices repeated brute force login attempts on its web portal, attempting to guess weak passwords.|a. Password attack|b. Malware attack|c. Application attack|d. Physical attack|a|Password attacks aim to compromise accounts through brute force, dictionary, or credential stuffing techniques. They exploit weak or reused passwords. Malware attacks rely on malicious software, application attacks exploit software flaws, and physical attacks involve unauthorized access to hardware. Mitigation includes enforcing strong password policies, multifactor authentication, account lockout thresholds, and monitoring for unusual login activity. This attack type is common and critical to address to prevent unauthorized access.
Question|An attacker intercepts unencrypted data traveling over a public Wi-Fi network to capture login credentials and sensitive information.|a. Unsecure network threat vector|b. Social engineering attack|c. File-based attack|d. Voice call attack|a|Unsecure networks allow attackers to eavesdrop on data in transit, such as through packet sniffing or man-in-the-middle attacks. Encrypting data with protocols like TLS prevents interception. Social engineering exploits human behavior, file-based attacks deliver malware, and voice call attacks manipulate users verbally. Network segmentation, VPNs, and secure protocols reduce exposure. This scenario illustrates how attackers leverage insecure communication channels to compromise confidentiality.
Question|An organization implements strict access control, patches all systems, and isolates critical servers from the main network to prevent lateral movement in case of compromise.|a. Segmentation, access control, patching, and isolation|b. Hardening, deterrence, file obfuscation, and corrective control|c. Social engineering, network sniffing, phishing, and malware scanning|d. Accounting, auditing, digital signatures, and encryption|a|Segmentation limits lateral movement, access control restricts permissions, patching fixes vulnerabilities, and isolation separates critical systems. Combined, these measures effectively reduce attack surfaces and mitigate the impact of a breach. Hardening strengthens individual systems but does not isolate, deterrence discourages attacks, and obfuscation hides data. Social engineering and malware scanning are specific countermeasures but not comprehensive. Accounting, auditing, and digital signatures provide monitoring and non-repudiation but do not prevent attacks. Layered mitigation ensures comprehensive protection.
Question|Which type of threat actor is typically motivated by political or ideological objectives rather than financial gain?|a. Hacktivist|b. Insider threat|c. Organized crime|d. Unskilled attacker|a|Hacktivists are threat actors driven by political, ideological, or social causes. They target organizations to advance a message, disrupt operations, or expose perceived wrongdoing. Unlike insiders, who may act for personal gain or revenge, or organized crime, which focuses on financial profit, hacktivists prioritize ideology. Unskilled attackers, often called “script kiddies,” generally seek notoriety or exploit simple vulnerabilities without sophisticated planning. Understanding actor motivation helps tailor defensive strategies, anticipate targets, and implement mitigations aligned with threat intent.
Question|Which threat vector relies on deceiving users into revealing credentials or executing malicious actions?|a. Social engineering|b. File-based|c. Supply chain|d. Unsecure network|a|Social engineering manipulates human behavior to bypass security controls, often using phishing, pretexting, or baiting. Attackers exploit trust and curiosity rather than technical vulnerabilities, making this vector highly effective even against secure systems. File-based attacks deliver malware through attachments or downloads, supply chain attacks compromise third-party vendors, and unsecure network attacks intercept data in transit. Mitigation includes training, multifactor authentication, and vigilant user behavior monitoring. Social engineering remains one of the most common and damaging attack methods.
Question|Which vulnerability type is specific to multi-tenant cloud environments and risks exposure between tenants?|a. Cloud-specific vulnerability|b. Hardware vulnerability|c. Mobile device vulnerability|d. Operating system vulnerability|a|Cloud-specific vulnerabilities arise from the shared infrastructure in multi-tenant cloud environments. They can include misconfigured storage, insecure APIs, or weak isolation between tenants, leading to data leakage or unauthorized access. Hardware vulnerabilities affect physical devices, mobile vulnerabilities target smartphones or tablets, and OS vulnerabilities impact operating systems directly. Cloud-specific mitigation requires proper configuration, access control, encryption, and monitoring to prevent cross-tenant exploitation and preserve data confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Question|An attack that attempts to guess user passwords repeatedly until successful is classified as which type of malicious activity?|a. Password attack|b. Malware attack|c. Application attack|d. Network attack|a|Password attacks include brute force, dictionary, and credential-stuffing attacks aimed at gaining unauthorized account access. These exploit weak, reused, or easily guessable passwords. Malware attacks rely on software to compromise systems, application attacks exploit software flaws, and network attacks target communication protocols. Effective mitigation involves enforcing strong password policies, enabling multifactor authentication, monitoring login attempts, and implementing account lockouts. Password attacks are one of the most common entry points for unauthorized access in organizations.
Question|Which mitigation technique involves applying security settings to systems and applications to reduce attack surfaces?|a. Hardening|b. Segmentation|c. Isolation|d. Patching|a|Hardening strengthens systems and applications by disabling unnecessary services, closing open ports, enforcing secure configurations, and reducing exploitable features. Segmentation separates network areas to limit lateral movement, isolation separates critical resources from general access, and patching fixes known vulnerabilities. Hardening reduces attack surfaces proactively, preventing attackers from exploiting default configurations, unnecessary applications, or misconfigured services. It is a fundamental security measure applied to operating systems, applications, network devices, and cloud resources.
Question|Which attack vector involves exploiting trusted third-party vendors to compromise multiple organizations simultaneously?|a. Supply chain attack|b. File-based attack|c. Message-based attack|d. Unsecure network attack|a|Supply chain attacks compromise third-party vendors or service providers to infiltrate target organizations. By tampering with trusted software, updates, or components, attackers gain indirect access to multiple victims. File-based attacks deliver malware directly to users, message-based attacks use communication channels like email, and unsecure network attacks intercept data in transit. Mitigation includes vendor risk management, software integrity verification, and monitoring supply chain interactions. Supply chain attacks are particularly insidious because they exploit trust relationships rather than directly attacking the primary target.
Question|Which attack type involves malicious software that replicates itself across systems or networks?|a. Malware attack|b. Physical attack|c. Cryptographic attack|d. Application attack|a|Malware attacks involve malicious software such as viruses, worms, ransomware, trojans, and spyware. Worms and viruses can replicate across systems or networks, spreading rapidly. Physical attacks involve unauthorized access to hardware, cryptographic attacks exploit weaknesses in encryption, and application attacks exploit software vulnerabilities. Malware attacks can lead to data loss, system compromise, or operational disruption. Mitigation includes endpoint protection, regular patching, user awareness, and network monitoring to detect and contain malware activity.
Question|Which type of attack targets weaknesses in an operating system to gain unauthorized access or execute malicious code?|a. Operating system-based attack|b. Hardware attack|c. Mobile device attack|d. Network attack|a|OS-based attacks exploit vulnerabilities such as privilege escalation flaws, kernel bugs, or misconfigurations to gain unauthorized control over a system. Hardware attacks target physical components, mobile attacks target smartphones or tablets, and network attacks exploit communication protocols. Mitigation includes applying OS patches promptly, enforcing least privilege, enabling system hardening, and monitoring for unusual activity. Operating system vulnerabilities are particularly critical because they can allow attackers to bypass application-level protections and control system resources.
Question|Which mitigation technique involves separating critical systems from general access networks to prevent compromise?|a. Isolation|b. Access control|c. Configuration enforcement|d. Patching|a|Isolation restricts communication between critical and non-critical systems, reducing the risk of compromise from lateral movement or malware propagation. Access control enforces permissions, configuration enforcement ensures systems adhere to security policies, and patching fixes known vulnerabilities. Isolation is commonly applied to sensitive servers, databases, or industrial control systems, preventing attackers from leveraging compromised areas to reach high-value assets. Combined with segmentation and monitoring, isolation strengthens organizational defense-in-depth.
Question|Which type of threat actor primarily operates for financial gain using sophisticated tactics and often targets multiple organizations?|a. Organized crime|b. Nation-state|c. Hacktivist|d. Unskilled attacker|a|Organized crime groups focus on monetary gain, often using ransomware, banking trojans, phishing, and large-scale fraud. They are typically well-funded, coordinated, and persistent, affecting multiple organizations to maximize profit. Nation-states aim at espionage or strategic objectives, hacktivists pursue ideological goals, and unskilled attackers exploit simple vulnerabilities opportunistically. Understanding the actor type and motivation helps organizations prioritize defenses, apply threat intelligence, and implement targeted mitigation strategies such as monitoring, detection, and rapid response capabilities.
Question|A company wants to migrate its internal applications to a cloud environment while ensuring rapid provisioning, scalability, and automated configuration management.|a. Infrastructure as Code (IaC)|b. On-premises architecture|c. Industrial Control Systems (ICS)|d. IoT architecture|a|Infrastructure as Code (IaC) enables automated provisioning, configuration, and management of cloud resources through code, improving scalability, consistency, and auditability. On-premises architecture relies on physical hardware and manual configuration, limiting flexibility. ICS is focused on industrial processes, and IoT architecture is for connected devices rather than enterprise application deployment. IaC also facilitates version control, testing, and reproducibility, allowing secure and consistent infrastructure deployment across environments while supporting DevSecOps practices.
Question|A utility company needs to secure a network that monitors and controls physical industrial processes, ensuring both operational reliability and protection from cyber threats.|a. Industrial Control Systems (ICS)|b. Cloud infrastructure|c. Virtualized environment|d. On-premises office network|a|ICS architecture is used in operational technology (OT) environments to monitor and control industrial processes. Security considerations focus on both operational reliability and cyber protection, including network segmentation, access controls, and redundancy. Cloud and virtualized environments primarily serve IT workloads, not real-time industrial operations. On-premises office networks do not manage industrial systems. Implementing ICS-specific security ensures safety, resilience, and availability of critical infrastructure while protecting against cyber threats like malware, insider attacks, or supply chain compromises.
Question|A hospital wants to ensure that patient data transmitted between internal systems and cloud storage is secure, only accessible to authorized personnel, and maintains integrity.|a. Secure communication with encryption and access control|b. On-premises physical security|c. ICS network segmentation|d. IoT endpoint monitoring|a|Secure communication involves encrypting data in transit and enforcing access controls to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authorization compliance. While on-premises physical security protects infrastructure, it does not secure cloud data transfers. ICS segmentation and IoT monitoring address operational and device-specific risks rather than general patient data security. Applying principles of secure communication and access control in enterprise infrastructure mitigates interception, unauthorized access, and tampering, ensuring compliance with regulations such as HIPAA and reducing the risk of data breaches.
Question|A company is implementing redundant servers, multiple data centers, and automatic failover to ensure business operations continue without disruption during hardware failures.|a. High availability and resilience|b. Data classification|c. On-premises deployment|d. Infrastructure as Code (IaC)|a|High availability focuses on system design to maintain operational uptime during failures, using redundancy, failover, and diverse infrastructure. Resilience ensures continuity under adverse conditions. Data classification organizes information but does not maintain uptime. On-premises deployment is a location model, and IaC automates deployment but does not inherently guarantee availability. Implementing high availability with failover, replication, and multiple sites ensures critical operations continue during outages, mitigating business disruption.
Question|A smart manufacturing plant uses sensors connected to a central network that monitors production metrics, requiring both real-time response and cybersecurity measures.|a. Internet of Things (IoT) architecture|b. Cloud architecture|c. Virtualization|d. On-premises office network|a|IoT architectures involve interconnected devices, sensors, and systems that collect and transmit data for real-time monitoring and automation. Security considerations include authentication, data encryption, network segmentation, and device hardening. Cloud and virtualized environments handle IT workloads, not device-level operational control. On-premises office networks do not manage IoT devices. Proper IoT security protects against device compromise, data leakage, and operational disruption while enabling automation and efficiency in industrial or smart environments.
Question|An organization wants to ensure sensitive customer records are encrypted, classified based on sensitivity, and protected both at rest and in transit.|a. Data protection with classification and encryption|b. ICS architecture|c. Segmented virtual environment|d. Power redundancy|a|Data protection involves identifying and classifying information by sensitivity and applying encryption to maintain confidentiality and integrity. Securing data at rest and in transit prevents unauthorized access and tampering. ICS and segmented virtual environments address operational and network security rather than data-specific safeguards. Power redundancy ensures system uptime but does not protect data. Implementing classification and encryption ensures regulatory compliance, reduces risk of breaches, and protects customer trust.
Question|A financial institution is designing a disaster recovery plan that includes off-site backups, alternative data centers, and periodic failover testing to maintain continuity of operations.|a. Resilience and recovery planning|b. Cloud migration|c. IoT network monitoring|d. Infrastructure as Code (IaC)|a|Resilience and recovery planning ensures business continuity through redundant systems, off-site backups, disaster recovery sites, and testing procedures. Cloud migration or IaC focuses on deployment, not disaster recovery planning, and IoT monitoring applies to device networks. Regular testing, site diversity, and backup strategies reduce downtime, maintain data integrity, and ensure operations continue during disasters, hardware failures, or cyberattacks, which is critical for financial institutions and other high-reliability sectors.
Question|A company is virtualizing servers to consolidate workloads while maintaining isolation between applications to prevent security breaches from affecting multiple services.|a. Virtualization with segmentation|b. IoT network|c. ICS deployment|d. Cloud-native architecture|a|Virtualization enables multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical host, consolidating workloads and reducing costs. Security considerations include isolation between VMs to prevent lateral compromise, configuration enforcement, and access control. IoT and ICS are device and operational architectures, and cloud-native architecture focuses on application deployment rather than VM-level isolation. Proper virtualized segmentation reduces attack surfaces, ensures operational stability, and protects sensitive workloads from compromise within shared infrastructure.
Question|An organization wants to ensure business continuity by maintaining multiple power sources, redundant hardware, and diverse platforms to reduce single points of failure.|a. Platform diversity and power redundancy|b. Data encryption and classification|c. IoT monitoring|d. Cloud IaC deployment|a|Platform diversity and power redundancy ensure operational resilience by preventing failures from a single component or power source from disrupting services. Diverse platforms reduce software and hardware dependency risks, while backup power maintains availability during outages. Encryption and classification secure data but do not ensure continuity. IoT monitoring observes device networks, and IaC manages deployment. Implementing redundancy and platform diversity is critical for high-availability systems, disaster recovery, and continuity of operations, especially in critical infrastructure and enterprise services.
Question|Which architecture model relies on physical hardware located on the organization’s premises, giving full control over configuration and security?|a. On-premises|b. Cloud|c. Virtualization|d. IoT|a|On-premises architecture is hosted within an organization’s physical facilities, allowing complete control over hardware, network, and security configurations. Organizations are responsible for maintenance, patching, monitoring, and disaster recovery. Cloud architectures outsource infrastructure management to third-party providers, virtualization abstracts workloads from physical hardware, and IoT architectures focus on interconnected devices. On-premises solutions provide direct control and can meet regulatory or compliance requirements but may have higher operational costs and scalability limitations compared to cloud or virtualized models.
Question|Which enterprise security principle ensures that communication between systems is protected from interception or tampering?|a. Secure communication with encryption|b. Platform diversity|c. Isolation|d. Data classification|a|Secure communication involves using encryption protocols (e.g., TLS, IPsec) and authentication methods to protect data in transit from interception, modification, or unauthorized access. Platform diversity and isolation focus on resilience and limiting single points of failure, while data classification organizes information based on sensitivity but does not ensure secure transmission. Protecting communications is fundamental in enterprise infrastructure to maintain confidentiality, integrity, and availability, ensuring that sensitive information like financial transactions or personal data remains secure from eavesdropping or tampering.
Question|Which architecture model is specifically designed for connecting sensors and devices to collect, transmit, and analyze real-time data?|a. Internet of Things (IoT)|b. On-premises|c. Industrial Control Systems (ICS)|d. Infrastructure as Code (IaC)|a|IoT architectures consist of sensors, actuators, and devices connected via networks to collect and exchange data for automation or analytics. Security considerations include device authentication, encryption, network segmentation, and firmware updates. ICS architectures focus on industrial process control, on-premises models refer to local infrastructure, and IaC automates deployment and configuration. Proper IoT security prevents unauthorized access, tampering, and data leakage while ensuring operational efficiency, particularly in smart buildings, industrial automation, and healthcare devices.
Question|Which mitigation approach ensures critical systems continue functioning despite hardware failure or other disruptions by maintaining multiple redundant components?|a. High availability and redundancy|b. Encryption|c. Data classification|d. Virtualization|a|High availability (HA) designs aim to prevent downtime through redundancy, failover, load balancing, and diverse infrastructure. Redundant servers, power supplies, and network paths ensure critical operations remain accessible during component failures. Encryption protects data, data classification organizes it based on sensitivity, and virtualization abstracts workloads but does not inherently guarantee uptime. HA and redundancy are essential for disaster recovery planning, business continuity, and resilience against unexpected failures or attacks, particularly for mission-critical systems.
Question|Which architecture model allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical host, reducing hardware costs and enabling workload isolation?|a. Virtualization|b. Cloud|c. On-premises|d. IoT|a|Virtualization abstracts physical hardware to run multiple virtual machines (VMs) on one host, enabling consolidation, resource efficiency, and isolation between workloads. Cloud computing can use virtualization but also includes outsourced management. On-premises refers to physical hosting at the organization’s site, and IoT focuses on interconnected devices. Virtualization allows workload segmentation to limit attack surfaces, simplifies testing and backup procedures, and supports security controls such as VM isolation, snapshots, and controlled access, providing operational flexibility and cost savings.
Question|Which data protection practice categorizes information based on sensitivity and applies appropriate security controls accordingly?|a. Data classification|b. Encryption|c. Platform diversity|d. Isolation|a|Data classification involves labeling data based on sensitivity, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted, and applying corresponding security controls like encryption, access restrictions, and monitoring. Encryption secures data, platform diversity reduces systemic failure risk, and isolation separates critical systems to limit exposure. Classification enables organizations to prioritize protection, comply with regulations, and implement controls proportionate to the risk level, ensuring that highly sensitive information receives stronger safeguards than low-risk data.
Question|Which architecture approach automates infrastructure deployment and configuration using code, improving consistency and auditability?|a. Infrastructure as Code (IaC)|b. On-premises|c. IoT|d. ICS|a|IaC allows infrastructure provisioning and configuration through scripts or templates, ensuring repeatable, consistent, and auditable deployments. It supports automated testing, version control, and security integration, reducing human errors. On-premises refers to local hardware, IoT to connected devices, and ICS to industrial process networks. IaC enables DevSecOps practices, improves compliance monitoring, and facilitates rapid scaling in cloud or hybrid environments, strengthening both operational efficiency and security posture.
Question|Which resilience strategy involves maintaining multiple data centers in different geographic locations to reduce the risk of a single site failure affecting operations?|a. Site diversity|b. High availability|c. Virtualization|d. Data classification|a|Site diversity ensures that if one data center is compromised due to natural disasters, power failures, or cyberattacks, operations can continue from another geographically separate location. High availability focuses on redundancy within a site, virtualization abstracts workloads, and data classification organizes information by sensitivity. Site diversity is a critical component of disaster recovery and business continuity planning, providing operational resilience and minimizing downtime while maintaining system and data availability for critical processes.
Question|Which security measure reduces the risk of service disruption by applying different types of hardware, software, and operating systems within the infrastructure?|a. Platform diversity|b. Encryption|c. Data classification|d. IaC|a|Platform diversity reduces single points of failure by implementing varied hardware, operating systems, or applications. If one platform experiences failure, others can maintain service continuity. Encryption protects data, data classification organizes sensitivity levels, and IaC automates deployment but does not inherently prevent downtime. Using diverse platforms strengthens resilience, mitigates targeted attacks exploiting specific vulnerabilities, and supports continuity of operations by minimizing systemic risk in enterprise infrastructure.
Question|Which backup strategy ensures data can be restored quickly and tested periodically for reliability in disaster recovery planning?|a. Regular backups with testing|b. Encryption at rest|c. Platform diversity|d. IoT monitoring|a|Regular backups with testing allow organizations to restore critical data during outages, corruption, or cyberattacks. Periodic testing verifies the reliability and integrity of backups, ensuring they can be restored when needed. Encryption secures data, platform diversity reduces systemic failure risk, and IoT monitoring observes device networks. Effective backup strategies are essential for continuity of operations, high availability, and disaster recovery, minimizing downtime and data loss while meeting regulatory and operational requirements.
Question|A company deploys a mobile application for employees that handles sensitive client data. The security team wants to ensure it cannot be tampered with or executed in untrusted environments.|a. Application sandboxing|b. Wireless security|c. Secure baseline|d. Hardening|a|Application sandboxing isolates the app from the underlying operating system and other applications, preventing malicious activity, data leakage, or tampering. Hardening and secure baselines strengthen overall systems, while wireless security protects network communications. Sandboxing ensures the app executes only within a controlled environment, mitigating risks associated with malicious code, compromised devices, or unauthorized access, which is critical for mobile solutions handling sensitive data.
Question|An organization wants to track all laptops, mobile devices, and software licenses from acquisition to decommission to ensure accountability and prevent unauthorized usage.|a. Asset management|b. Vulnerability management|c. Identity and access management|d. Automation and orchestration|a|Asset management tracks hardware, software, and data throughout their lifecycle, including acquisition, assignment, monitoring, and disposal. This ensures visibility, compliance, and security by preventing unauthorized use or loss. Vulnerability management identifies and remediates security weaknesses, identity and access management handles user permissions, and automation supports operational efficiency. Effective asset management allows organizations to maintain control over IT resources and mitigate risks such as untracked devices or expired software vulnerabilities.
Question|During a routine security scan, multiple web servers are found with outdated versions and known vulnerabilities. The team needs to evaluate risk, remediate, and verify the fixes.|a. Vulnerability management|b. Alerting and monitoring|c. Endpoint detection and response|d. Incident response|a|Vulnerability management is a structured process to identify, analyze, remediate, validate, and report vulnerabilities. This includes scanning, patching, configuration changes, and verification. Alerting and monitoring track activities in real-time, EDR/XDR detect endpoint threats, and incident response addresses actual security incidents. Effective vulnerability management prevents exploitation, reduces attack surfaces, and maintains system security proactively.
Question|A financial institution uses monitoring tools to track network traffic, system logs, and endpoint activities to detect abnormal behavior.|a. Alerting and monitoring|b. Vulnerability management|c. Identity and access management|d. Automation and orchestration|a|Alerting and monitoring involve continuous observation of network traffic, system logs, and endpoint events to detect anomalies, policy violations, or potential attacks. This process enables rapid response to threats. Vulnerability management identifies weaknesses, IAM manages user permissions, and automation orchestrates repetitive tasks. Proper alerting and monitoring is crucial for detecting suspicious behavior, ensuring compliance, and supporting proactive defense strategies across enterprise infrastructure.
Question|A company wants to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to its corporate network and enforce compliance with security policies.|a. Network Access Control (NAC)|b. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)|c. DNS filtering|d. Firewall|a|NAC solutions enforce security policies by controlling which devices can access a network based on compliance, posture, or authentication. DLP prevents sensitive data leakage, DNS filtering restricts access to malicious sites, and firewalls control traffic at the network perimeter. NAC is critical in enterprise security to ensure only trusted, compliant devices connect, minimizing risk from rogue devices, shadow IT, or compromised endpoints.
Question|An organization implements single sign-on (SSO) combined with multifactor authentication (MFA) to provide secure and convenient access to multiple enterprise applications.|a. Identity and access management|b. Vulnerability management|c. Automation and orchestration|d. Endpoint detection and response|a|Identity and access management (IAM) ensures that users are authenticated, authorized, and accountable. SSO simplifies access across multiple applications, and MFA adds a security layer to prevent unauthorized access even if credentials are compromised. Vulnerability management addresses weaknesses, automation improves efficiency, and EDR/XDR detects endpoint threats. IAM protects enterprise resources, reduces password fatigue, and enforces least privilege policies, which are essential for securing sensitive data and user access.
Question|A security operations team deploys scripts to automatically collect logs from multiple servers, normalize the data, and trigger alerts for anomalies.|a. Automation and orchestration|b. Vulnerability management|c. Asset management|d. Network Access Control|a|Automation and orchestration use scripts, tools, or workflows to streamline repetitive security tasks, such as log collection, alerting, or remediation. This reduces manual errors, speeds response, and allows analysts to focus on higher-value tasks. Vulnerability management focuses on patching, asset management tracks hardware/software, and NAC controls network access. Implementing automation improves efficiency, consistency, and reliability in security operations.
Question|During a suspected ransomware incident, the security team isolates affected systems, collects forensic evidence, performs root cause analysis, and restores backups to resume operations.|a. Incident response|b. Alerting and monitoring|c. Identity and access management|d. Vulnerability management|a|Incident response is a structured approach to handling security events, including preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Root cause analysis and forensic evidence collection help prevent recurrence and support legal or regulatory requirements. Alerting and monitoring detect threats, IAM manages user access, and vulnerability management reduces weaknesses. Effective incident response ensures rapid containment, limits damage, and restores business continuity.
Question|A SOC analyst uses firewall logs, IDS alerts, endpoint telemetry, and application logs to investigate a potential data breach.|a. Data sources for security investigations|b. Identity and access management|c. Automation and orchestration|d. Vulnerability management|a|Security investigations rely on multiple data sources, including network logs, IDS/IPS alerts, endpoint telemetry, and application logs. This information helps analysts reconstruct events, identify compromised systems, and determine the scope of incidents. IAM, automation, and vulnerability management support other security functions but do not provide the raw data needed for investigation. Aggregating and correlating data is essential for effective threat hunting, incident response, and forensic analysis.
Question|Which security practice ensures that mobile devices and applications follow minimum security requirements before they are allowed to operate in the enterprise environment?|a. Secure baseline implementation|b. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)|c. Multifactor authentication (MFA)|d. Alerting and monitoring|a|Secure baselines define minimum security configurations for systems, applications, and mobile devices, including patch levels, password policies, and application restrictions. This prevents devices with weak or insecure configurations from introducing vulnerabilities. DLP prevents data leakage, MFA strengthens authentication, and alerting/monitoring detects anomalies. Implementing secure baselines is a proactive approach that standardizes configurations across the enterprise, reducing attack surfaces and ensuring consistent security compliance.
Question|Which process involves tracking the lifecycle of hardware, software, and data from acquisition to decommissioning to maintain accountability?|a. Asset management|b. Vulnerability management|c. Identity and access management|d. Automation and orchestration|a|Asset management encompasses acquisition, assignment, monitoring, and disposal of IT assets. It ensures that hardware, software, and data are properly tracked, reducing risks such as unaccounted devices, expired software licenses, or data leaks. Vulnerability management focuses on weaknesses, IAM on user permissions, and automation on task efficiency. Effective asset management enables organizations to maintain inventory, enforce security policies, and support compliance audits.
Question|Which structured process is used to identify, prioritize, remediate, and validate security weaknesses across systems?|a. Vulnerability management|b. Endpoint detection and response (EDR)|c. Incident response|d. Network Access Control (NAC)|a|Vulnerability management systematically identifies, analyzes, remediates, validates, and reports vulnerabilities in hardware, software, and networks. EDR monitors endpoint threats, incident response handles events post-compromise, and NAC enforces network access policies. Effective vulnerability management reduces attack surfaces, prevents exploitation, and ensures that security weaknesses are addressed promptly, supporting a proactive security posture.
Question|Which tool is designed to continuously collect, analyze, and alert on abnormal behavior across network and system activities?|a. Alerting and monitoring systems|b. Privileged access management|c. Identity provisioning tools|d. Automation scripts|a|Alerting and monitoring systems track logs, network traffic, and endpoint activity to detect anomalies, policy violations, or potential attacks. These systems generate alerts to enable rapid response. Privileged access management controls high-level user permissions, identity provisioning manages accounts, and automation scripts streamline tasks. Continuous monitoring is essential for threat detection, situational awareness, and timely mitigation of security incidents.
Question|Which enterprise security control prevents sensitive data from leaving the organization through unauthorized channels?|a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)|b. DNS filtering|c. Firewall|d. NAC|a|DLP tools monitor and control data transfers to prevent sensitive information from leaving the organization via email, cloud services, or removable media. Firewalls and DNS filtering control network traffic, while NAC restricts device access. DLP is essential for protecting intellectual property, financial records, and personally identifiable information, ensuring regulatory compliance and reducing the risk of data breaches.
Question|Which technology allows users to authenticate once to access multiple enterprise applications securely?|a. Single sign-on (SSO)|b. Multifactor authentication (MFA)|c. Endpoint detection and response (EDR)|d. Data classification|a|SSO provides a unified authentication mechanism, allowing users to access multiple applications with a single login while maintaining security and user convenience. MFA adds additional verification steps, EDR monitors endpoints, and data classification organizes information by sensitivity. SSO enhances user experience, reduces password fatigue, and enforces consistent access policies across enterprise applications.
Question|Which type of access control ensures that only authorized users can perform high-risk operations, often combined with logging and auditing?|a. Privileged access management|b. Network access control (NAC)|c. Data classification|d. Application sandboxing|a|Privileged access management (PAM) governs accounts with elevated permissions, enforcing strong authentication, activity logging, and time-limited access. NAC controls device network access, data classification organizes information, and sandboxing isolates applications. PAM reduces the risk of insider misuse, credential compromise, or unauthorized administrative actions, providing accountability and auditability for sensitive operations in enterprise environments.
Question|Which security operations process includes preparation, detection, containment, eradication, and recovery from security incidents?|a. Incident response|b. Vulnerability management|c. Alerting and monitoring|d. Automation and orchestration|a|Incident response is a structured methodology for addressing security incidents, including preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Vulnerability management identifies weaknesses, alerting/monitoring detects anomalies, and automation streamlines tasks. Proper incident response ensures rapid containment, reduces damage, preserves evidence for forensics, and helps prevent recurrence, maintaining business continuity and regulatory compliance.
Question|Which source of information is critical for investigating and reconstructing security events across endpoints, network devices, and applications?|a. Log data and telemetry|b. Asset inventory|c. Vulnerability reports|d. PAM policies|a|Logs and telemetry provide a record of system, application, and network activities, enabling SOC analysts to reconstruct events, identify compromised systems, and determine the scope of incidents. Asset inventories, vulnerability reports, and PAM policies support security operations but do not provide the detailed historical activity required for forensic investigations. Accurate, centralized log collection is essential for threat hunting, incident response, and compliance auditing.
Question|A financial organization implements a formal structure defining roles, responsibilities, and reporting channels to ensure that security policies and procedures are enforced across all departments.|a. Security governance|b. Risk management|c. Third-party risk management|d. Security compliance|a|Security governance establishes a framework of policies, standards, procedures, and organizational structures to manage and enforce security initiatives. It clarifies roles, responsibilities, and reporting channels to ensure accountability and alignment with business objectives. Risk management focuses on identifying and mitigating risks, third-party risk addresses vendor security, and compliance ensures regulatory adherence. Effective governance ensures consistent application of security policies, promotes accountability, and provides oversight across the enterprise.
Question|During a review, the security team identifies that a new application could expose sensitive data. They analyze potential threats, evaluate impact, and assign a risk rating to determine mitigation strategies.|a. Risk management|b. Security compliance|c. Security awareness|d. Audits and assessments|a|Risk management is the systematic identification, assessment, and mitigation of risks. It involves evaluating potential threats, estimating business impact, determining risk tolerance, and selecting strategies for reduction or acceptance. Compliance ensures adherence to laws and standards, security awareness trains users, and audits/assessments evaluate controls. Proper risk management allows organizations to prioritize resources, reduce exposure, and align security strategies with business objectives.
Question|An organization requires all vendors to complete security questionnaires, provide evidence of controls, and agree to terms protecting sensitive data before onboarding.|a. Third-party risk management|b. Risk management|c. Security governance|d. Security compliance|a|Third-party risk management ensures that vendors, contractors, and partners meet organizational security requirements. This includes vendor assessment, selection, contractual agreements, questionnaires, monitoring, and rules of engagement. Risk management evaluates internal and external risks broadly, governance sets policy frameworks, and compliance ensures legal adherence. Proper third-party risk management prevents supply chain compromise, unauthorized data access, and operational disruptions caused by external entities.
Question|A healthcare organization performs regular internal and external audits and penetration tests to ensure controls are effective and compliant with regulations.|a. Audits and assessments|b. Security governance|c. Security awareness|d. Third-party risk management|a|Audits and assessments evaluate the effectiveness of security controls, policies, and procedures. Internal audits provide ongoing assurance, external audits verify compliance with regulations, and penetration tests simulate attacks to identify vulnerabilities. Governance establishes frameworks, security awareness focuses on human behavior, and third-party risk addresses vendor oversight. Conducting audits and assessments ensures risks are identified, compliance requirements are met, and corrective measures are implemented proactively.
Question|An enterprise launches a mandatory phishing awareness program, teaching employees to recognize suspicious emails and report potential threats immediately.|a. Security awareness|b. Risk management|c. Security compliance|d. Security governance|a|Security awareness programs educate employees on identifying threats such as phishing, anomalous behavior, and unsafe practices. They provide guidance on reporting and reinforce a security-conscious culture. Risk management evaluates and mitigates threats, compliance ensures regulatory adherence, and governance defines policies and roles. Effective awareness reduces human-related risks, strengthens organizational defense, and complements technical controls by empowering employees as active participants in security.
Question|A company maintains a register documenting identified risks, their likelihood, potential impact, and chosen mitigation strategies to track and communicate risk status to leadership.|a. Risk register within risk management|b. Security compliance documentation|c. Third-party contract management|d. Security governance framework|a|A risk register records identified risks, assesses likelihood and impact, and tracks mitigation strategies. It is central to risk management, providing visibility, prioritization, and reporting to stakeholders. Compliance documentation focuses on legal and regulatory adherence, third-party management addresses vendor risks, and governance frameworks define roles and policies. Maintaining a risk register ensures informed decision-making, resource allocation, and ongoing monitoring of organizational risk exposure.
Question|A company evaluates vendors periodically for adherence to contractual security obligations, monitors performance metrics, and addresses any security deficiencies identified during audits.|a. Ongoing third-party risk monitoring|b. Security awareness|c. Risk management|d. Audits and assessments|a|Third-party risk management includes continuous monitoring of vendors to ensure compliance with security requirements and contractual obligations. Monitoring identifies gaps, enforces remediation, and prevents supply chain or data exposure risks. Security awareness targets employees, risk management evaluates enterprise risks broadly, and audits assess control effectiveness. Continuous vendor oversight is crucial for mitigating external threats and ensuring organizational security objectives extend to all partners.
Question|A regulatory compliance team tracks all relevant laws and standards, monitors adherence, and reports any violations along with consequences to senior management.|a. Security compliance|b. Risk management|c. Security governance|d. Audits and assessments|a|Security compliance ensures that the organization adheres to laws, regulations, standards, and contractual obligations. It involves monitoring, reporting non-compliance, and understanding potential penalties or consequences. Risk management identifies threats and mitigation strategies, governance defines policies and roles, and audits evaluate control effectiveness. Maintaining compliance protects against legal, financial, and reputational risks while promoting trust and accountability with stakeholders.
Question|A security team develops a schedule for penetration testing, internal audits, and attestation reviews to measure control effectiveness and verify policy adherence.|a. Audits and assessments|b. Risk management|c. Security awareness|d. Security compliance|a|Audits and assessments systematically evaluate the implementation and effectiveness of security controls, policies, and procedures. Penetration testing identifies exploitable vulnerabilities, internal audits review operational adherence, and attestation provides assurance of compliance. Risk management identifies and mitigates risks, security awareness addresses human behavior, and compliance ensures regulatory adherence. Regular assessments help identify gaps, improve controls, and validate organizational security posture.
Question|Which component of a security program defines the framework for policies, standards, procedures, and roles/responsibilities to enforce security objectives?|a. Security governance|b. Risk management|c. Security compliance|d. Security awareness|a|Security governance establishes the organizational framework for enforcing security objectives, including policies, standards, procedures, roles, responsibilities, and oversight mechanisms. It ensures alignment with business goals and regulatory requirements. Risk management identifies and mitigates threats, compliance ensures adherence to laws, and awareness programs focus on human behavior. Effective governance provides structure, accountability, and decision-making authority to maintain a consistent security posture across the enterprise.
Question|Which process involves identifying, assessing, analyzing, and prioritizing risks to determine appropriate mitigation strategies?|a. Risk management|b. Security compliance|c. Security governance|d. Audits and assessments|a|Risk management systematically identifies threats, assesses their likelihood and impact, analyzes vulnerabilities, and prioritizes mitigation strategies. It may include creating a risk register, defining risk tolerance/appetite, and performing business impact analysis (BIA). Governance provides oversight, compliance ensures legal adherence, and audits measure control effectiveness. Proper risk management allows organizations to allocate resources effectively, reduce exposure, and make informed decisions about acceptable levels of risk.
Question|Which practice ensures vendors meet organizational security requirements before and during engagement, including contracts, assessments, and monitoring?|a. Third-party risk management|b. Risk management|c. Security compliance|d. Security awareness|a|Third-party risk management evaluates vendor security posture before engagement, incorporates contractual obligations, and monitors ongoing compliance. This reduces exposure to supply chain risks, data breaches, and operational disruptions. Risk management addresses overall enterprise risk, compliance ensures regulatory adherence, and awareness programs educate employees. Effective vendor oversight maintains security throughout the supply chain and ensures external partners adhere to organizational security standards.
Question|Which security process ensures adherence to laws, standards, and regulations, and tracks consequences of non-compliance?|a. Security compliance|b. Security governance|c. Risk management|d. Audits and assessments|a|Security compliance monitors adherence to regulatory requirements, internal policies, and contractual obligations, and reports violations along with potential consequences. Governance defines policies and roles, risk management identifies and mitigates threats, and audits evaluate controls. Compliance ensures that legal, financial, and operational obligations are met, mitigating penalties, protecting reputation, and promoting trust with stakeholders.
Question|Which method evaluates the effectiveness of security controls, including internal and external audits, attestation, and penetration testing?|a. Audits and assessments|b. Security awareness|c. Third-party risk management|d. Risk management|a|Audits and assessments verify the implementation and effectiveness of security controls and processes. Internal audits ensure adherence to internal policies, external audits validate regulatory compliance, attestation provides formal assurance, and penetration testing identifies vulnerabilities. Security awareness targets employees, third-party risk evaluates vendors, and risk management focuses on threat identification. Regular assessments help detect gaps, strengthen controls, and support continuous improvement.
Question|Which type of program educates employees on recognizing threats, reporting anomalies, and practicing safe behavior to reduce human-related security risks?|a. Security awareness|b. Security governance|c. Security compliance|d. Risk management|a|Security awareness programs focus on teaching employees to recognize phishing, social engineering, anomalous behaviors, and other security threats. They provide guidance on reporting and following best practices, reducing human error-related incidents. Governance establishes policies, compliance monitors adherence, and risk management addresses threats systematically. Awareness programs complement technical controls by empowering personnel as active participants in security.
Question|Which risk management tool tracks identified risks, likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies for ongoing oversight and reporting?|a. Risk register|b. Security compliance report|c. Audit checklist|d. Vendor assessment|a|A risk register documents risks, their likelihood, potential impact, mitigation strategies, and status. It provides visibility for decision-makers and supports risk monitoring, reporting, and prioritization. Compliance reports focus on legal adherence, audit checklists measure control effectiveness, and vendor assessments evaluate third-party risks. Maintaining a risk register ensures informed decision-making and ongoing management of enterprise risks.
Question|Which security oversight activity monitors vendor adherence to contractual obligations and ensures timely remediation of deficiencies?|a. Continuous third-party risk monitoring|b. Security compliance|c. Security awareness|d. Internal audit|a|Continuous third-party risk monitoring ensures vendors comply with security requirements, contract terms, and agreed-upon service levels. This includes reviewing performance, audits, and remediation of identified gaps. Security compliance monitors regulations, awareness focuses on employees, and audits evaluate internal processes. Ongoing vendor oversight minimizes supply chain risks and protects sensitive data and organizational operations.
Question|Which process identifies potential threats, assesses business impact, and informs decisions about acceptable levels of risk?|a. Business impact analysis (BIA) within risk management|b. Security awareness|c. Security compliance|d. Audits and assessments|a|A BIA identifies critical business functions, assesses potential operational impacts of disruptions, and informs risk management strategies. It helps organizations determine risk tolerance, allocate resources, and prioritize mitigation efforts. Security awareness educates employees, compliance ensures regulatory adherence, and audits evaluate control effectiveness. BIA is essential for informed decision-making, continuity planning, and aligning security investments with organizational priorities.
Question|Which structured approach ensures employees, policies, and processes work together to detect, report, and respond to anomalous behavior across the organization?|a. Security awareness and monitoring|b. Risk management|c. Security governance|d. Third-party risk management|a|Security awareness combined with monitoring trains employees to recognize and report suspicious activities, while monitoring systems detect anomalies across networks and endpoints. This integrated approach reduces human error, enhances detection capabilities, and enables faster response. Risk management addresses enterprise threats, governance establishes oversight, and third-party risk manages vendors. Aligning awareness and monitoring strengthens the organization’s overall security posture.

Why Choose Our CompTIA Security Plus Practice Test Questions?

Questions Cover All CompTIA Security+ Exam Objectives

Our CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam questions and answers cover every current exam objective. From general security concepts to security program management and oversight, Techcertguide’s CompTIA practice questions ensure comprehensive coverage of all objectives.

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CompTIA security plus practice test questions provide accurate answers with detailed explanations. This ensures you don’t just memorize responses but understand why each answer is correct within the context of the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam objectives. Our motto is: Stop cramming, start understanding. Guided by this principle, we’ve designed practice questions that deliver a complete understanding of all SY0-701 objectives.

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Yes. These practice questions are fully updated and aligned with the current CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam objectives, ensuring they reflect the latest topics, terminology, and exam focus areas.

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Yes. The PDF is a paid resource priced at USD 20. It includes 200+ carefully curated questions covering updated exam topics across multiple difficulty levels, along with detailed answers and explanations to support effective learning and exam readiness.

What is covered in the final CompTIA Security+ exam questions?

The questions comprehensively cover all official SY0-701 exam domains, including, General Security Concepts, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations, Security Architecture, Security Operations, Security Program Management and Oversight.

Are these CompTIA Security+ practice questions based on real-world scenarios?

Yes. The questions are built around real-world security scenarios, focusing on practical situations such as incident response, risk management, secure architecture decisions, and operational security challenges that professionals encounter in real environments.

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