Realistic FREE CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Questions and Answers With Explanations (2026)

To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, you must successfully pass both the 220-1201 (Core 1) and 220-1202 (Core 2) exams. If you’re preparing for the 220-1202 exam, you can access free CompTIA A+ core 1 practice questions below to test your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement.

Free Core 2 questions are also available to help you build confidence before exam day.

Techcertguide offers free practice questions for both exams, bringing everything together in one convenient place. Instead of searching across multiple sites, you can prepare for Core 1 and Core 2 using a single, organized resource.

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Objectives Covered in CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Questions

• Mobile devices (13%)
• Networking (23%)
• Hardware (25%)
• Virtualization and cloud computing (11%)
• Hardware and network troubleshooting (28%)

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Questions of Objective 1: Mobile devices (13%)

Question

A technician is configuring a docking station for a laptop that will be used in a hot-desking environment. The user reports that external monitors connected through the dock intermittently disconnect and reconnect. USB peripherals remain functional. What is the most likely cause of the display issue?

1. The docking station firmware requires an update to support multiple displays
2. The USB-C cable connecting the dock is not rated for video transmission
3. The monitors require separate power connections to function properly
4. The laptop’s operating system is missing video drivers

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

USB-C cables vary in capabilities, and not all support video transmission through DisplayPort or Thunderbolt protocols. Using a cable that lacks video support can cause intermittent display issues while USB functionality remains intact. Updating firmware or drivers may not resolve a hardware limitation. A video-capable USB-C cable ensures stable monitor connectivity in docking environments. Proper accessory selection is essential for multi-display setups and workstation reliability.

Question

A mobile device technician is installing a replacement camera module in a smartphone. After installation, the camera app launches but displays a black screen. The device recognizes the module in system settings. What troubleshooting step should the technician take?

1. Verify that the camera ribbon cable is fully seated and free of damage
2. Perform a factory reset to resolve software conflicts
3. Replace the device’s storage to restore application functionality
4. Disable background applications to improve camera performance

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

A black screen in the camera application despite module recognition often indicates a physical connection issue with the ribbon cable. Ensuring the cable is properly seated and undamaged allows data communication between the module and the device. Factory resets and storage replacements address software or capacity issues, not hardware connections. Proper installation of internal components is critical for functionality after repairs. Troubleshooting physical connections is a foundational skill in mobile device hardware maintenance.

Question

A user wants to configure NFC payments on their smartphone but reports that the payment app fails to detect NFC when attempting transactions. NFC is enabled in settings, and the device supports contactless payments. What should the technician verify?

1. The device case is not blocking the NFC antenna area
2. Bluetooth is disabled to prevent wireless conflicts
3. The Wi-Fi network supports secure payment protocols
4. The device’s screen brightness is set to maximum

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

Thick or metallic device cases can obstruct NFC antennas, preventing communication with payment terminals. Even if NFC is enabled, physical barriers may block signal transmission. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi settings do not directly impact NFC functionality. Ensuring unobstructed antenna access is essential for contactless payment operations. Understanding hardware placement and accessory compatibility helps resolve NFC-related transaction failures.

Question

A technician is setting up synchronization between a smartphone and a cloud service for corporate email and contacts. The user reports that contacts are not syncing, while emails update correctly. Network connectivity is stable. What is the most likely cause?

1. Contact synchronization permissions are disabled in the account settings
2. The mobile device requires a new Wi-Fi network profile
3. Bluetooth pairing with a workstation is missing
4. The device’s operating system version is incompatible with email services

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

Cloud synchronization settings often allow independent control of email, contacts, and calendar data. If contact sync permissions are disabled, emails may update while contacts remain unchanged. Network configuration and Bluetooth pairing do not affect cloud-based synchronization. Enabling the appropriate permissions restores full data synchronization. Proper account configuration is essential for mobile productivity and data consistency across devices.

Question

A user reports that their tablet’s touchscreen intermittently fails to register input in specific areas of the display. The issue occurs after the device was dropped but no visible cracks are present. What is the most likely hardware cause?

1. Internal digitizer damage affecting touch input recognition
2. A software update that requires reinstallation
3. Low battery performance impacting touchscreen functionality
4. Incorrect screen brightness settings

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

The digitizer translates touch input into signals the device can process. Impact damage can disrupt digitizer functionality even if the screen appears intact. Software updates and battery levels do not typically cause localized input failures. Replacing or repairing the digitizer restores touchscreen responsiveness. Understanding internal component functions is critical for diagnosing mobile device hardware issues after physical impacts.

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Questions of Objective 2: Networking (23%)

Question

A technician is troubleshooting why client systems on a corporate LAN are unable to automatically obtain IP addresses. The DHCP server is confirmed to be operational, but clients continue to assign themselves APIPA addresses in the 169.254.x.x range.

Which ports and protocol must the technician ensure are allowed between clients and the DHCP server?

1. TCP 67 and TCP 68
2. UDP 67 and UDP 68
3. TCP 53 and UDP 53
4. UDP 161 and UDP 162

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

DHCP uses UDP port 67 for the server and UDP port 68 for the client. The DHCP process relies on broadcast messages during the discovery and offer phases. Because the client does not yet have an IP address, UDP is used instead of TCP.

If UDP 67 and 68 are blocked by a firewall or misconfigured ACL, clients will fail to receive IP configuration information and will assign themselves APIPA addresses. Ensuring these UDP ports are allowed restores proper communication between clients and the DHCP server.

Question

A network technician is configuring a secure wireless network for a medical clinic. The clinic requires strong encryption and centralized authentication using a RADIUS server. The wireless access points must authenticate users against a central directory before granting network access.

Which wireless security configuration best meets these requirements?

1. WPA2-Personal with a shared passphrase
2. WPA3-Personal with SAE
3. WPA2-Enterprise using 802.1X authentication
4. WEP with MAC address filtering

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication and integrates with a RADIUS server for centralized credential validation. This setup ensures each user authenticates with unique credentials rather than a shared password. In environments like medical clinics, centralized authentication and strong encryption are required to protect sensitive patient information.

WPA2-Enterprise supports AES encryption and allows administrators to manage user access individually. If a user leaves the organization, access can be revoked without changing credentials for all users. This meets both security and administrative requirements in regulated environments.

Question

A systems administrator needs to remotely manage multiple Linux servers across a secure internal network. The administrator wants encrypted command-line access and the ability to securely transfer configuration files between systems without exposing credentials in plaintext.

Which protocol and port combination should be allowed to support both requirements?

1. Telnet on TCP 23
2. FTP on TCP 21
3. SSH on TCP 22
4. TFTP on UDP 69

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

SSH operates on TCP port 22 and provides encrypted remote command-line access. It protects authentication credentials and session data from interception. In addition to remote login, SSH supports secure file transfer using SCP and SFTP, which operate over the same encrypted channel.

Allowing SSH provides both secure management access and secure file transfer capability without requiring additional insecure protocols. This satisfies the requirement for encrypted administration and file movement within the internal network.

Question

A company’s DNS server is reachable internally, but external users report that domain names hosted by the company cannot be resolved from the internet. The server administrator confirms that DNS services are running properly.

Which port and protocol must the firewall allow for standard DNS queries from external clients?

1. TCP 25
2. UDP 53
3. TCP 3389
4. UDP 123

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

DNS primarily uses UDP port 53 for standard name resolution queries. When external clients attempt to resolve the company’s domain name, they send UDP requests to port 53. If the firewall blocks UDP 53, those queries never reach the DNS server.

Allowing UDP port 53 enables normal DNS resolution. While DNS can also use TCP 53 for zone transfers or large responses, standard client queries rely on UDP. Ensuring this port is open restores external name resolution functionality.

Question

A technician is setting up network monitoring to track bandwidth usage and device health across multiple switches and routers. The monitoring server must periodically query devices and receive alert notifications if thresholds are exceeded.

Which ports should be allowed to enable full SNMP functionality?

1. UDP 161 and UDP 162
2. TCP 161 and TCP 443
3. UDP 69 and UDP 161
4. TCP 25 and UDP 162

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

SNMP uses UDP port 161 for queries sent from the monitoring system to managed devices. It uses UDP port 162 for traps and notifications sent from devices back to the monitoring server. Both ports are necessary for complete monitoring functionality.

If UDP 161 is open but 162 is blocked, the monitoring server can poll devices but will not receive asynchronous alerts. Allowing both ensures the system can both retrieve performance metrics and receive event-driven notifications.

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Questions of Objective 3: Hardware (25%)

Question

A user connects to the office VPN but reports that file transfers are extremely slow and frequently time out. Network diagnostics show high latency and packet loss. The VPN uses UDP-based traffic for data transmission. What is the most likely cause of the issue?

1. Network congestion or ISP throttling
2. Incorrect VPN authentication credentials
3. Outdated VPN client software
4. Disabled IPv6 on the network

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

High latency and packet loss typically indicate network congestion or ISP throttling, which can severely impact VPN performance. UDP-based VPN traffic is sensitive to packet loss since it does not guarantee delivery like TCP. In networking environments, congestion often occurs during peak usage times or due to bandwidth limitations. Troubleshooting should focus on network performance, ISP policies, and potential quality of service (QoS) configurations to prioritize VPN traffic.

Question

A technician is setting up a SOHO network and needs to segment devices for security and performance. The network includes IoT devices, employee workstations, and guest users. Which solution best isolates traffic between these groups while allowing controlled communication?

1. Configure Virtual LANs (VLANs) on the router and switch
2. Use separate wireless networks without VLANs
3. Assign static IP ranges for each device group
4. Disable inter-network communication

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

VLANs allow logical segmentation of a network, isolating traffic between different device groups while enabling controlled communication when necessary. In SOHO networks, VLANs improve security by preventing unauthorized access between segments and enhancing performance by reducing broadcast traffic. For example, IoT devices can be isolated from employee workstations, reducing risk while maintaining network efficiency. Proper VLAN configuration ensures traffic separation and controlled routing between segments.

Question

A workstation cannot connect to the company’s internal web application but can access external websites. The application uses HTTPS on port 443. A firewall rule on the router allows outbound traffic on standard web ports. What should the technician check next?

1. Verify that port 443 is allowed in the firewall rules
2. Ensure the workstation’s IP address is within the DHCP range
3. Disable HTTPS inspection on the firewall
4. Restart the web application server

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

If outbound web traffic works but internal HTTPS applications are inaccessible, the firewall may be blocking port 443 traffic to the internal application. Firewall rules must explicitly allow traffic on required ports for application functionality. In networking troubleshooting, verifying port accessibility is a critical step when applications fail to connect despite network connectivity. Ensuring proper firewall configuration allows secure communication without exposing unnecessary services.

Question

A technician uses a cable tester and discovers that a network cable fails the continuity test on pins 1 and 2. The cable is intended for a standard Ethernet connection. What is the most likely issue?

1. The cable is damaged or improperly terminated
2. The device requires a crossover cable
3. The cable length exceeds Ethernet specifications
4. The network switch port is disabled

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Pins 1 and 2 are used for data transmission in Ethernet cables. A failure in continuity indicates damage or improper termination, preventing data transfer. Cable testers help identify physical layer issues in networking environments, such as broken wires or incorrect crimping. Proper cable termination ensures reliable connectivity and compliance with Ethernet standards. Replacing or reterminating the cable typically resolves such issues.

Question

A SOHO network experiences frequent IP address conflicts. Devices report duplicate IP address messages and lose connectivity. The network uses DHCP to assign addresses. What is the most likely cause?

1. A static IP address is assigned within the DHCP range
2. The DHCP server is not issuing addresses
3. The router’s firewall is blocking DHCP traffic
4. The subnet mask is incorrectly configured

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
WhyIP address is the accurate answer of this CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Question? Let’s find out. IP address conflicts occur when a static IP address is manually assigned within the DHCP address pool, causing duplication. DHCP reserves addresses dynamically, and static assignments must be outside the DHCP range. In networking environments, proper IP management prevents conflicts and ensures stable connectivity. Adjusting static assignments or modifying the DHCP range resolves address duplication issues.

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Questions of Objective 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing (11%)

Question

An IT administrator is setting up a virtualization lab. The server has 32GB of RAM, and four virtual machines are configured with 8GB each. During testing, performance slows significantly when all VMs are active. The administrator confirms no additional physical RAM is installed.

What is the most likely cause of the performance issue?

1. Insufficient storage capacity
2. Overprovisioned memory allocation
3. Hypervisor firmware incompatibility
4. Network bandwidth limitation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The server has exactly 32GB of RAM, and the administrator allocated 8GB to each of four virtual machines, totaling the entire physical memory. When the host OS and hypervisor require memory, there are no available resources left, leading to performance degradation. This is known as overprovisioning memory.

In virtualization scenarios, it is important to leave adequate memory for the hypervisor and host processes. Exam questions often test resource allocation awareness. Allocating all physical RAM to VMs without accounting for system overhead causes swapping and performance issues, making overprovisioning the correct answer.

Question

A development team wants to deploy applications quickly without worrying about managing operating systems or applying system patches. They need a cloud solution where they can upload code and let the provider handle runtime environments and scalability.

Which cloud model should they choose?

1. IaaS
2. PaaS
3. SaaS
4. Hybrid cloud

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Platform as a Service provides an environment where developers can deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system, runtime, or infrastructure. The cloud provider handles system updates, scaling, and platform maintenance. Developers focus only on writing and deploying code.

In CompTIA A+ exam scenarios, when the question describes reduced system administration responsibilities but still requires application development flexibility, PaaS is the correct model. IaaS requires OS management, and SaaS provides fully built applications. Since the developers only want to upload code and avoid system maintenance, PaaS is the best fit.

Question

A company wants to consolidate multiple underutilized physical servers into fewer physical machines to reduce power consumption and hardware costs. Each legacy application requires a separate operating system environment.

What technology should be implemented?

1. Containerization
2. Virtual machines using a hypervisor
3. SaaS migration
4. Network segmentation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Virtual machines allow multiple operating systems to run on a single physical host using a hypervisor. Each VM operates independently with its own OS and applications, making it ideal for consolidating separate server workloads.

In exam scenarios, when legacy applications require isolated OS environments but hardware consolidation is needed, virtual machines are the proper solution. Containers share the same OS kernel and are not suitable for applications requiring different operating systems. Server consolidation through virtualization reduces costs and improves hardware utilization.

Question

An organization deploys a private cloud within its own data center. The security team insists that all sensitive data must remain on-premises due to compliance regulations. However, during peak demand, additional computing resources are required temporarily.

Which cloud approach best addresses this requirement?

1. Public cloud only
2. Hybrid cloud
3. SaaS
4. Community cloud

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud combines private and public cloud environments, allowing data and applications to move between them as needed. Sensitive workloads remain in the private cloud, while additional resources can be temporarily provisioned from the public cloud during peak demand.

In exam contexts, when compliance requires on-premises control but scalability is also needed, hybrid cloud is the appropriate solution. It provides flexibility while maintaining regulatory control over critical data. This approach balances security and scalability effectively.

Question

A technician installs a hypervisor directly onto server hardware. After installation, there is no traditional operating system interface, only a management console for creating and controlling VMs.

What type of hypervisor is being used?

1. Type 2 hypervisor
2. Hosted hypervisor
3. Type 1 hypervisor
4. Application virtualization

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A type 1 hypervisor, also called a bare-metal hypervisor, installs directly on physical hardware without requiring a host operating system. It provides a management interface specifically designed for virtualization tasks.

In exam scenarios, the absence of a host operating system indicates a type 1 hypervisor. This architecture improves performance and security because there is no intermediary OS layer. It is commonly used in enterprise environments where reliability and scalability are critical.

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Questions of Objective 5: Hardware and network troubleshooting (28%)

Question

An employee states their VoIP phone intermittently drops calls. The PC connected through the phone’s pass-through port also loses network connectivity briefly when this occurs. The switch supports Power over Ethernet (PoE).

What is the most likely cause?

1. Insufficient PoE power budget on the switch
2. DNS misconfiguration on the PC
3. Incorrect VLAN tagging on the router
4. Defective VoIP handset microphone

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When both the VoIP phone and the connected PC lose connectivity simultaneously, the issue likely originates at the switch port. Since the switch provides PoE, insufficient power allocation can cause the phone to reboot intermittently, disrupting both the phone and the pass-through network connection.

PoE switches have a maximum power budget. If additional devices were added recently, the switch may exceed its capacity. This results in devices losing power momentarily. Verifying the PoE budget and adjusting device allocation resolves the instability. This diagnosis aligns with troubleshooting methodology by focusing on shared infrastructure components.

Question

A laptop user complains that the battery drains extremely fast even when the device is idle. The battery health check reports normal capacity. The laptop feels unusually warm even when not in use.

What should you check first?

1. Replace the battery immediately
2. Disable Wi-Fi and Bluetooth permanently
3. Check for background processes causing high CPU usage
4. Update the BIOS to factory defaults

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Rapid battery drain combined with unusual warmth suggests sustained CPU activity. Even when idle, a system consuming excessive processing power generates heat and drains battery life quickly. This often occurs due to background applications, malware, or misconfigured services.

Checking Task Manager for abnormal CPU usage is the appropriate first step. Identifying and resolving resource-heavy processes addresses both symptoms simultaneously. Replacing the battery without confirming power consumption behavior would be premature. Proper troubleshooting requires confirming software-driven power usage before considering hardware replacement.

Question

A small office recently installed a new network printer. Some users can print successfully, but others receive “printer not found” errors. All users are on the same subnet. Pinging the printer from affected computers fails, while successful users can ping it.

What is the most likely cause?

1. Incorrect subnet mask on affected PCs
2. Printer toner is low
3. Corrupted printer drivers on the print server
4. Faulty USB cable on the printer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
If all users are physically on the same subnet but only some can ping the printer, IP configuration inconsistency is likely. An incorrect subnet mask can prevent systems from properly determining whether an IP address is local or remote, causing communication failures even on the same network.

Successful users can ping the printer, which confirms the device is operational and reachable. The issue is isolated to affected PCs. Verifying and correcting the subnet mask ensures proper routing logic and restores communication. This scenario reflects common real-world misconfiguration problems in small office environments.

Question

A desktop PC boots successfully but takes over five minutes to reach the login screen. Once logged in, applications open normally. The system uses a traditional mechanical hard drive. SMART diagnostics show no failures.

What should you recommend to significantly improve startup performance?

1. Increase virtual memory allocation
2. Replace the hard drive with an SSD
3. Add a dedicated GPU
4. Disable antivirus software

Correct Answer: B

Explanation of CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Question:
Mechanical hard drives have significantly slower read speeds compared to solid-state drives. Boot processes involve many small random reads, which traditional HDDs handle inefficiently. Even without SMART errors, mechanical latency can cause extended startup times.

Upgrading to an SSD dramatically improves boot speed because SSDs have near-instant access times and faster throughput. Since the system performs normally after boot, CPU and RAM are likely sufficient. The primary bottleneck is storage speed. Replacing the HDD with an SSD is a common and highly effective performance upgrade.

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